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Latest updated Cisco 700-765 dumps from Lead4Pass

Posted by admin on September 21, 2022 in Cisco, Cisco 700-765 dumps, Cisco 700-765 dumps exam questions, Cisco 700-765 dumps PDF, latest updated Cisco 700-765 dumps, Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps

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Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps provide PDF files and a VCE exam engine to help you practice 700-765 ASASE exam questions quickly and easily. The latest updated 700-765 dumps contain 92 exam questions and answers, verified by IT experts to be true and effective.

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
15	Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)	Lead4Pass	Updated on: Sep 21, 2022	Aug 28, 2022

New Question 1:

Which three customer business objectives do Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)

A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management

B. Visibility and control with a managed environment

C. Accelerated firewall implementation

D. Complete protection with holistic defense

E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions

F. Secure communications with advanced access

Correct Answer: BDE

New Question 2:

What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)

A. Malware clustering

B. Threat-based anomaly detection

C. Netflow monitoring

D. Data Loss Prevention

E. Realtime sandboxing

F. Forensic investigation

Correct Answer: BCF

New Question 3:

What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose Two) A. Unresponsive potential customers

B. Seller competition

C. Fragmented solutions

D. Complexity of solution components

E. Overcrowded portfolios

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 4:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)

A. Email

B. Mobile

C. Voicemail

D. Data Center

E. Web

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 70

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose Two)

A. advanced analytics

B. reputation analytics

C. intrusion analysis

D. dynamic URL filtering

E. dynamic data analysis

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 7:

What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?

A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources

B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence

C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources

D. Context, telemetry and intelligence sources

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers realtime access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)

A. pxGrid

B. Cisco Security Connector

C. Duo

D. Stealthwatch

E. AMP for Endpoints

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 10:

Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)

A. Industrial Network Director

B. Duo

C. Cisco Security Connector

D. Advanced Malware Protection

E. Identity Services Engine

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 11:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

Which two products are involved in granting safe access to apps? (Choose Two)

A. TrustSec

B. ISE

C. SD-Access

D. Duo

E. ACI

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 13:

Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?

A. Context-aware access

B. Centralized policy management

C. Platform exchange grid

D. Device profiling

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.

B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.

C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.

D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)

A. Threat Defense

B. Intrusion Analytics

C. Threat Analytics

D. Network Analytics

E. NGFW

F. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: CDF

…

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Lead4Pass 500-560 dumps: serves all 500-560 OCSE exam candidates

Posted by admin on September 6, 2022 in 500-560 OCSE exam, Cisco, Cisco 500-560 dumps, Cisco 500-560 dumps exam questions and answers, Cisco 500-560 PDF, Cisco Associated Certification

The newly updated Lead4Pass 500-560 dumps contain 50 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 500-560 dumps PDF and 500-560 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 500-560 OCSE exam.

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1RCA3TuXTGguBBMcHCvZTkzrXI_HYGck3/
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New Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express

B. Cisco 8540

C. Cisco 3504

D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

New Question 5:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

What switching product should you lead with for a midmarket customer?

A. Catalyst C9200

B. Catalyst SG 550xG

C. SG250X

D. C2960L

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard

B. remote wipe any device on the network

C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth

D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Which is a SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Correct Answer: C

New Question 11:

What is one challenge commonly facing Express Specialization Networking customers?

A. shrinking IT budget and resource scarcity

B. low number of devices connected to the network

C. do-it-yourself approach to network management

D. large, highly bureaucratic IT departments

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is one way that Mx security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability?

A. Always on (availability groups)

B. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)

C. Warm spare (using VRRP)

D. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default

B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers

C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support

D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

…

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Cisco 300-920 dumps: serves all 300-920 DEVWBX exam candidates

Posted by admin on August 26, 2022 in 300-920 Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices, 300-920 DEVWBX exam, Cisco, Cisco 300-920 dumps exam questions and answers, Cisco Certified DevNet Professional

The newly updated Cisco 300-920 dumps contain 60 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 300-920 dumps PDF and 300-920 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam.

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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user.

Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for HTTP request that sets up a personal metting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 3:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.

B. The credential was expired.

C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.

D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has capital letters and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t checks that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, WebEx meetings XML API service has processed the request.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. A webhook has been created so that an application is notified when users mention a bot in a Webex Teams space. The exhibit shows an example of a notification received by the application. Which code snippet correctly processes the JSON payload using the Webex Node.js SDK in order to print out messages that mention the bot?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Which xAPI access mechanism requires separate connections for commands and notifications?

A. Serial

B. WebSocket

C. HTTP/HTTPS

D. SSH

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 9:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.

B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.

C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.

D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.

E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 10:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\’s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\’ scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created from a public authority

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which Webex Teams REST API request has generated the response body in the exhibit?

A. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=lastactivity

B. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=created

C. GET/v1/rooms?max=1

D. GET/v1/spaces?orderBy=lastActivity

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. When using the Webex Browser SDK to create calls and share screens, which two statements are valid given a `webex\’ object such as displayed in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. After a meeting is joined, it cannot be left programmatically until the host ends the meeting.

B. The webex meetings.register() function must be invoked before attempting to join any meeting.

C. The joinMeeting() function throws an error of type `media stopped\’ if a media stream is stopped.

D. Given a Webex meeting number the webex meetings join() function can be used to join the meeting.

E. The mediaSettings for a joined meeting accepts boolean attributes to send and receive audio, video, and screen share.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing.

Which HTTP header is expected in this response?

A. Push

B. Link

C. Patch

D. Put

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms.

Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

…

Download the Cisco 300-920 PDF for free sharing online:
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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

Posted by admin on August 18, 2022 in CCNP Service Provider, Cisco, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 Braindumps, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 exam dumps, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 exam topics, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 free dumps, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 PDF dumps, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 Practice Test, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 Study Guide, Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 VCE dumps

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.

Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?

Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?

A. shared tree

B. MDT default

C. source tree

D. MDT voice

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?

A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.

B. The two routers have the same area ID.

C. The two routers have the same network ID.

D. The two routers have different IS-types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.

B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds

C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds

D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.

Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?

A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command

B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route

C. Filter the routes on the receiving router

D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.

Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?

A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets

B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?

A. shortest path calculated by IGP

B. dynamic rules

C. path policy

D. explicit maps

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?

A. The two devices have different process IDs

B. The two devices have different network types

C. The two devices have different router IDs

D. The two devices have the same area ID

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

A. type 3 LSA

B. type 4 LSA

C. type 1 LSA

D. type 2 LSA

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?

A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally

B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process

C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process

D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?

A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path

B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis

C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path

D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network

Correct Answer: C

……

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Latest Popular Cisco 350-401 ENCOR Exam Success Methods

Posted by admin on August 3, 2022 in 350-401 dumps, 350-401 dumps pdf, 350-401 dumps vce, 350-401 ENCOR Exam, 350-401 Exam, 350-401 exam Methods, 350-401 exam practice, 350-401 online practice, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

Here is a helpful Cisco 350-401 ENCOR Exam Success Method for all Candidates!

Cisco 350-401 ENCOR Exam Success Methodology has many:

Purchase learning videos
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Buy books for self-study
Participate in an official training program
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Part of Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Lead4Pass	15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless	350-401

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3 from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration setting achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any
router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permits 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer

B. monitor

C. bridge

D. local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.

Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

Correct Answer: A

Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.

QUESTION 5:

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7:

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on devices with similar network settings?

A. Command Runner

B. Template Editor

C. Application Policies

D. Authentication Template

Correct Answer: B

Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch.

When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/1-3/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 8:

An engineer must export the contents of the device’s object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?

A. json.repr(Devices)

B. json.dumps(Devices)

C. json.prints(Devices)

D. json.loads(Devices)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

B. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

C. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

D. Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 10-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be applied to Routed to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

A. Router1(config)#interface tunnel0

B. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

C. Router1(config-if)#tunnel mode gre multipoint

D. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down.

Which script must the engineer apply?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

…

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Posted by admin on July 13, 2022 in 350-801 Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR), Cisco, Cisco 350-801, cisco 350-801 dumps, cisco 350-801 exam topics, cisco 350-801 practice exam, cisco 350-801 study guide, Cisco CCNP, implementing and operating cisco collaboration core technologies (clcor 350-801), implementing and operating cisco collaboration core technologies (clcor) pdf

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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1:

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

QUESTION 4:

What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

QUESTION 7:

An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8:

Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

QUESTION 10:

lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11:

How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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Posted by admin on July 5, 2022 in Cisco, cisco 200-901, cisco 200-901 dumps, cisco 200-901 exam dumps, cisco 200-901 study guide, Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 2020, devasc 200-901, Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Core Platforms

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200-901 DEVASC – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devasc-200-901.html

This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

Understanding and using APIs
Cisco platforms and development
Application development and security
Infrastructure and automation

[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

……

[Updated 2022] Get Complete Free Cisco 200-901 Exam Questions and Answers

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
“____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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Posted by admin on October 20, 2020 in 300-535 Automating and Programming Cisco Service Provider Solutions (SPAUTO), Cisco, Cisco 300-535, Cisco 300-535 dumps, Cisco 300-535 exam dumps, Cisco 300-535 exam questions, Cisco 300-535 pdf, Cisco CCNP

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Latest updates Cisco 300-535 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1 lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place: lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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about lead4pass

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Posted by admin on October 20, 2020 in 300-515 Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SVPI), Cisco, Cisco 300-515, cisco 300-515 dump, cisco 300-515 exam dumps, cisco 300-515 exam questions, cisco 300-515 pdf, Cisco CCNP

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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

QUESTION 5 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

QUESTION 12 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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About The Lead4Pass Dumps Advantage

Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
about lead4pass

Summarize:

This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-515 exam dumps, 300-515 exam questions and answers! 300-515 pdf, 300-515 exam video!
You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader!
Select Lead4Pass 300-515 exams Pass Cisco 300-515 exams “Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SVPI)”. Help you successfully pass the 300-515 exam.

ps.

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Latest update Lead4pass 300-515 exam dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-515.html (59 Q&As)
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