[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB6-704 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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Microsoft Dynamics AX is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have helped in driving thousands of companies on the http://www.passitdump.com/mb6-704.html Microsoft MB6-704 dumps exam sure-shot path of success. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts.

QUESTION 1
You need to display data on a new form. What should you do?
A. Add a data source and create a design.
B. Add a data source and set a caption.
C. Add a data source and create a method.
D. Add a form part and set a caption.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A form data source is the database query, table, or view that a form uses to retrieve the data that is displayed by the form. The data source also defines a connection to the Application Object Server (AOS) that the form can use to MB6-704 dumps create, update, or delete database records.
A data design element (controls) displays data on a form.
Incorrect:
Not B: A data source has no caption.
MB6-704
MB6-704
QUESTION 2
You have a table named Vend Table that contains a field named Main Contact Worker. Main Contact Worker is the reference Recid. Many records in the Vend Table table have the same value for Main Contact Worker.
Users frequently search for data in the Vend Table table based on the Main Contact Worker field.
You need to ensure that when the users create queries that include the Main Contact Worker field in the where clause, the query results are returned in the least amount of time possible.
What should you create in Vend Table?
A. A unique index in Main Contact Worker
B. A surrogate key that is used as the primary index
C. A primary index for Main Contact Worker
D. A non-unique index in Main Contact Worker
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For new tables the default is a primary key based on the MB6-704 pdf RecId field. This is represented as the surrogate.

QUESTION 3
You have two tables named Table l and Table2. There is a relationship between the tables.
You need to display data from both tables in a form.
How should you create the data source for the form?
A. Add both tables to a perspective and use the perspective as the data source.
B. Create a new table named Table3 that is related to Table l and Table2. Use Tables as the data source.
C. Add both tables to a map and use the map as the data source.
D. Add both tables to a query and use the query as the data source.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
You can add parent and child data sources to a query.
Add multiple data sources to a query
1. In the Application Object Tree (AOT), click Queries, locate the query you want to add data sources to, and then click the query node. For information about create queries, see Accessing Data.
2. Right-click Data Dictionary, and then click Open New Window.
3. Drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the query node to add a parent data source.
4. Click the parent data source, and then drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the parent data source to add a child data source.
5. Specify how the parent and child data sources are joined by setting the JoinMode property on the child data source
6. Create a relationship between the data sources.

Incorrect: Not C: Maps define X++ elements that wrap table objects at run time. With a map, you associate a map field with a field in one or more tables. This enables you to use the same field name to ac- cess fields with different names in different tables. Map methods enable you to create or modify methods that act on the map fields.

QUESTION 4
You enable a feature for a Dynamics AX instance. What should you use?
A. An extensible data security (XDS) policy
B. A configuration key
C. The Table Permissions Framework (TPF)
D. A security key
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The administrator can enable or disable configuration keys to control the MB6-704 vce features and functional- ity that are available in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Incorrect:
Not A: XDS is a powerful mechanism that allows the ability to express and implement complex data security needs.

QUESTION 5
You need to add a menu item to a list page. To which pane should you add the menu item?
A. Preview
B. Action
C. Filter
D. Fact Box
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
An action pane and action pane strip is a collection of buttons that represent the tasks and opera- tions associated with a Microsoft Dynamics AX form.
The action pane buttons access menu items that are defined in the AOT.
When you add a button to an action pane button group, the application object tree (AOT) enables you to select the following types of buttons:
Command button
Menu item button
Menu button
Button

QUESTION 6
Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A model is a set of elements in a given layer. Each layer consists of one or more models. Each layer contains one system-generated model that is specific to that layer. Every element in a layer belongs to MB6-704 exam only one model. In other words, no element can belong to two models in the same layer, and every element must belong to a model.
Note:
Models were introduced in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 to help partners and customers more easily install and maintain multiple solutions side by side in the same layer.

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[Latest Questions] Latest PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in PRINCE2

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is False? PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER Exam Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers
A Successful project management team should.
A. Have business, user and supplier stakeholder representation
B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration
C. Ensure appropriate governance by defining responsibilities for directing, managing and delivering the project and clearly defining accountability at all levels
D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from stakeholders
Answer: B

QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project?
A. Ensures the project provides value for money
B. Ensures the requirements for the project are defined
C. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality
D. Represents the users of the product
Answer: A
PRINCE2-PRACTITIONER
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board should display?
A. Authority, Credibility, Commitment, Availability
B. Authority, Credibility, Delegation, Availability
C. Authority, Availability, Connections, Delegation
D. Authority, Credibility, Connections, Delegation
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
In which Management product would the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER exam Project Board specify where the authority for change requests lies?
A. Risk Management Strategy
B. Quality Management Strategy
C. Communication Strategy
D. Configuration Management Strategy
Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
Who is responsible for ensuring that Communication Management Strategy is appropriate and that planned communication activities actually take place?
A. Project Assurance
B. Project Manager
C. Corporate or Programme Management
D. Project Support
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
A. Ensure project controls are based on project’s scale, complexity, importance, capability and risk
B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project
C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
D. To pick which PRINCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER pdf six areas of the project, Time. Cost and Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit

QUESTION: 8
Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
A. Any of the projects specialist products
B. A result of the change derived from using the project’s products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

QUESTION: 9
When considering the business options in the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER vce business case, which of these is NOT an option?
A. Do nothing
B. Do the maximum
C. Do the minimum
D. Do something
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to expected benefits?
A. They cannot be assigned
B. They don’t need to follow corporate objectives
C. They should be measurable
D. Tolerances cannot be set against expected benefits
Answer: C

QUESTION: 11
Who is responsible for ensuring that the value-for-money solution is constantly reassessed?
A. Business Assurance
B. Senior User
C. Corporate or Programme Management
D. Reject Support
Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
Which of the following activities is the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER dumps Executive responsible for?
A. Ensure the desired outcome of the project is specified
B. Responsible for the benefits review plan
C. Assess and update the Business Case at the end of each stage
D. Responsible for the Benefits Review Plan post project
Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-465 Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the security requirement.
What should you recommend? http://www.passitdump.com/70-465.html Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-465 Exam Study Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers
A. Revoke user permissions on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate data. Grant the users the EXECUTE permission on the stored procedures.
B. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the tables. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
C. Deny the users SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the tables. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
D. Deny the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate data. Grant the users the EXECUTE permission on the stored
procedures.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Security Requirements
You must provide users with the ability to execute functions within the ERP application, without having direct access to the underlying tables.

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the index fragmentation and index width issue. What should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the data type of the lastModified column to smalldatetime.
B. Remove the lastModified column from the clustered index.
C. Change the data type of the modifiedBy column to tinyint.
D. Change the data type of the id column to bigint.
E. Remove the modifiedBy column from the clustered index.
F. Remove the id column from the clustered index.
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
Scenario: Index Fragmentation Issues
Customers discover that clustered indexes often are fragmented. To resolve this issue, the customers defragment the indexes more frequently.
All of the tables affected by fragmentation have the following columns that are used as the clustered index key:
70-465

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution that reduces the time it takes to import the supplier data.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Enable instant file initialization.
B. Reorganize the indexes.
C. Disable Resource Governor.
D. Enable Auto Update Statistics.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* The ERP application relies on an import process to load supplier data. The import process updates thousands of rows simultaneously, requires exclusive access to the database, and runs daily.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution that meets the data recovery requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A differential backup
B. A transaction log backup
C. Snapshot isolation
D. A database snapshot
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the file storage requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. FileStream
B. FileTable
C. The varbinary data type
D. The image data type
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: File Storage Requirements
The ERP database stores scanned documents that are larger than 2 MB. These files must only be accessed through the ERP application. File access must have the best possible read and write performance.
* FileTables remove a significant barrier to the use of SQL Server for the storage and management of unstructured data that is currently residing as files on file servers. Enterprises can move this data from file servers into FileTables to take advantage of integrated administration and services provided by SQL Server. At the same time, they can maintain Windows application compatibility for their existing Windows applications that see this data as files in the file system.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the installation issues.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows logins
B. Server roles
C. Contained users
D. Database roles
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Installation Issues
The current version of the ERP application requires that several SQL Server logins be set up to function correctly. Most customers set up the ERP application in multiple locations and must create logins multiple times.
* Creating contained users enables the user to connect directly to the contained database. This is a very significant feature in high availability and disaster recovery scenarios such as in an AlwaysOn solution. If the users are contained users, in case of failover, people would be able to connect to the secondary without creating logins on the instance hosting the secondary. This provides an immediate benefit.

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-133 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

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Latest and most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-133 pdf exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers. Oracle Java and Middleware is omnipresent all around the world, http://www.passitdump.com/1z0-133.html and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies.

QUESTION 1
An administrate in your organization says you do not need to back up the domain files on a machine which only managed servers run.
Select the best explanation for this statement.
A. This Is true because the domain files can be re created with the 1Z0-133 pdf pack and unpack utilities.
B. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is if your security realm uses the embedded ldap system. Which is not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility.
C. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is for applications that are deployed to the managed server. Those files are not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility. If you back those up manually, then pack and unpack can be used.
D. This is not true. You need to back up the domain files on a machine on which only managed servers run by using operating system commands (such as tar or zip).
Correct Answer: B
1Z0-133
QUESTION 2
You decide to use a database to store WebLogic Server transaction logs for a managed server.
Which two steps are required to configure this?
A. Under the managed server’s Services configuration select “JDBC” as the type for the transaction log store.
B. Under the managed server’s Services configuration, select “Disable the Default Store
C. Create a non XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
D. Create an XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about 1Z0-133 exam stopping Node Manager?
A. If you stop Node Manager, the managed servers it started will also stop.
B. You may kill the Node Manager process by using operating system commands.
C. Using the stopNodeManager.sh script so Node Manager stops gradually.
D. Using the administration console, select the appropriate machine and click stop.
E. The administration server goes into ADMIN mode if it can no longer Communicate with Node Manager.
F. The managed servers that Nod Manager started go into ADMIN mode if they can no longer communicate with Node Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
As the technical lead for your project, you have been asked to recommend a new solution to handle frequently increasing loads on your applications. The Weblogic 12.1.2 domain currently runs with two clusters of three servers with request being filtered and passed by a proxy server that users the 1Z0-133 vce round – robin algorithm.
However, the load sometimes exceeds the maximum capacity of all these servers combined but your domain lacks in scalability.
What is the best implementation solution?
A. Add a third cluster and spread existing server instances across the clusters.
B. Modify the proxy server load balancing algorithm to weight based.
C. Configure dynamic clusters and specify the number of server instances you anticipate at needing at peak load.
D. Tune work managers to optimize work.
E. Replace the software load balancer with a hardware load balancer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are using the Configuration Wizard to create a now domain that will consist of a cluster of a of three managed servers along with an instance of WebLogic server acting as HIPT proxy to distribute traffic to the cluster.
Which three steps should you perform with the Configuration Wizard?
A. Create one Cluster.
B. Install Oracle HTTP Server.
C. Create one Coherence server.
D. Create tour managed servers.
E. Assign three servers to a cluster.
F. Specify a proxy port tor the administration server.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
You configure a data source with a non XA driver because your (non-Oracle) database does not provide XA drivers.
The data source will sometimes participate in global transactions with an EJB, so as you configure the 1Z0-133 dumps data source you select “Supports Global Transactions” and One-phase commit.
Why is this configuration wrong?
A. You must choose an XA driver when a data source participates In global transactions.
B. “One’ Phase Commit” always returns “ready” during phase one of the two-phase commit process’ so it is possible you will have heuristic errors in the database.
C. “One-Phase Commit” processes this data source last In the global transactions, if the EJB must go last, you cannot use this configuration.
D. “One-Phase Commit” only allows this data source to participate in global transaction, so you cannot have a global transaction that includes an EJB.
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 74-343 Exam Study Materials Free Try

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Latest Microsoft 74-343 exam practice questions and answers. Pass Microsoft 74-343 exam at first try. Download free 74-343 exam test answers online. http://www.passitdump.com/74-343.html Microsoft Project products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. 100% success and guarantee to pass 74-343 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION: 1
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Answer: A
74-343
QUESTION: 2
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the 74-343 pdf senior stakeholder wants you to display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 3
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a construction project that requires propane as a fuel source for your equipment. The foreman requires that you enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. The propane costs $5.00 per gallon, and the tank holds 500 gallons of propane. Each time the tank is refilled, you must pay a fee of $20. You need to enter the propane costs into your project schedule prior to filling the propane tank for the first time. What should you do?
A. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the cost per use and $5.00 in the standard rate.
B. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $25 in the actual cost.
C. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the standard rate and $5.00 in the cost per use.
D. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $2520 in the actual cost.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the 74-343 vce integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the 74-343 dumps same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
You are a senior project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013. You are managing a large ERP project with both part-time and full-time resources. The part-time resources have strict contractual limitations regarding working days and hourly availability. You need to make sure the tasks for your part-time resources are only scheduled in the 74-343 calendar during their agreed-upon working days and hours. What should you do?
A. Change the part-time resources’ tasks to manually scheduled to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
B. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the percent of units to the agreed-upon amount in their contract.
C. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the working time for each resource to only include days and hours agreed upon in their contract.
D. Change the part-time resources’ units to the percentage they are available and set task constraints to must finish on to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 300-080 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

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The latest Cisco 300-080 dumps practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. Best Cisco 300-080 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. http://www.passitdump.com/300-080.html All the Cisco 300-080 dumps exam questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 300-080 exam test easily at the first time.

QUESTION 1
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco 300-080 dumps Unified Communications Manager. What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-080
All phones are placed in the Internal_Pt partition. The CSS for 300-080 pdf all phones contains the partition Internal_Pt, and Vml.CSS contains the voicemail hunt pilot. When a call is placed from extension 2001 to 2002, which statement is true?
A. Extension 2002 will ring.
B. The call will be blocked.
C. The call will be answered by voicemail.
D. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be blocked.
E. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be forwarded to voicemail.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco 300-080 vce TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to “Direct.”
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to 300-080 exam check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323 system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco 300-080 Unified Communications Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Correct Answer: AB

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[Latest Questions] Latest Juniper JN0-633 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
You are working as a security administrator and must configure a solution to Juniper JN0-633 dumps protect against distributed botnet attacks on your company’s central SRX cluster.
How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Configure AppTrack to inspect and drop traffic from the malicious hosts.
B. Configure AppQoS to block the malicious hosts.
C. Configure AppDoS to rate limit connections from the malicious hosts.
D. Configure AppID with a custom application to block traffic from the malicious hosts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are asked to change the configuration of your company’s SRX device so that you can block nested traffic from certain Web sites, but the main pages of these Web sites must remain available to JN0-633 pdf users.
Which two methods will accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the HTTP ALG.
B. Implement a firewall filter for Web traffic.
C. Use an IDP policy to inspect the Web traffic.
D. Configure an application firewall rule set.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You are using the AppDoS feature to control against malicious bot client attacks. The bot clients are using file downloads to attack your server farm. You have configured a context value rate of 10,000 hits in 60 seconds. At which threshold will the bot clients no longer be classified as malicious?
A. 5000 hits in 60 seconds
B. 8000 hits in 60 seconds
C. 7500 hits in 60 seconds
D. 9999 hits in 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
jn0-633
QUESTION 4
Your company’s network has seen an increase in Facebook-related traffic. You have been asked to restrict the amount of Facebook-related traffic to less than 100 Mbps regardless of congestion. What are three components used to JN0-633 vce accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. IDP policy
B. application traffic control
C. application firewall
D. security policy
E. application signature
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
You recently implemented application firewall rules on an SRX device to act upon encrypted traffic.
However, the encrypted traffic is not being correctly identified. Which two actions will help the SRX device correctly identify the encrypted traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Enable heuristics to detect the encrypted traffic.
B. Disable the application system cache.
C. Use the junos:UNSPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
D. Use the junos:SPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You have just created a few hundred application firewall rules on an SRX device and applied them to the appropriate firewall polices. However, you are concerned that the JN0-633 exam SRX device might become overwhelmed with the increased processing required to process traffic through the application firewall rules.
Which three actions will help reduce the amount of processing required by the application firewall rules? (Choose three.)
A. Use stateless firewall filtering to block the unwanted traffic.
B. Implement AppQoS to drop the unwanted traffic.
C. Implement screen options to block the unwanted traffic.
D. Implement IPS to drop the unwanted traffic.
E. Use security policies to block the unwanted traffic.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 7
You are asked to apply individual upload and download bandwidth limits to YouTube traffic. Where in the configuration would you create the necessary bandwidth limits?
A. under the [edit security application-firewall] hierarchy
B. under the [edit security policies] hierarchy
C. under the [edit class-of-service] hierarchy
D. under the [edit firewall policer ] hierarchy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You want to verify that all application traffic traversing your SRX device uses standard ports. For example, you need to verify that only DNS traffic runs through port 53, and no other JN0-633 protocols. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an IDP policy to identify the application regardless of the port used.
B. Use a custom ALG to detect the application regardless of the port used.
C. Use AppTrack to detect the application regardless of the port used.
D. Use AppID to detect the application regardless of the port used.
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-039 VCE Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Cisco

Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. Cisco 700-039 vce Additional Online Exams for http://www.passitdump.com/700-039.html Validating Knowledge is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer training materials.

QUESTION 1
Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)
A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-tomarket time for innovative products globally
C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenuestreams through new customers
700-039
QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of 700-039 case studies, whitepapers, demos, and verticaloriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding Cisco 700-039 Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat. How secure is your Collaboration application?
B. I’m concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems’?
D. I’m concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco 700-039 Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
Correct Answer: BCE

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[Latest Questions] Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in CompTIA

CompTIA PK0-003 dump is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality CompTIA http://www.passitdump.com/pk0-003.html training materials. CompTIA PK0-003 dump exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical PathD. PERT chart
Correct Answer: A
PK0-003
QUESTION 2
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the PK0-003 exam MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to PK0-003 vce a full stop due to the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
While performing a scheduled PK0-003 walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy.
Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A project team member has identified a required change to PK0-003 pdf one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they PK0-003 allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. CrashingB. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The project manager is reviewing the Pareto chart to identify if the life cycle of a deliverable is producing software bugs. Which of the following are represented in the chart? (Select TWO).
A. Number of work units affected by the bug
B. Percentage of bug types occurring
C. Software bug counts
D. Root cause of bug occurrence
E. Affect of the bug occurrence
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-883 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Oracle

Oracle Database is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. Oracle Database exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. http://www.passitdump.com/1z0-883.html Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Oracle Oracle Database MySQL 5.6 Database Administrator training materials.

QUESTION 1
Consider the 1Z0-883 dumps query:
Mysql> SET @run = 15;
Mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE run=@run AND objective=’7.1′
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
1Z0-883
The iteminformation table has the following indexes;
Mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM iteminformation:
1Z0-883
This query is run several times in an application with different values in the 1Z0-883 exam WHERE clause in a growing data set.
What is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Consider typical High Availability (HA) solutions that 1Z0-883 do not use shared storage. Which three HA solutions do not use shared storage?
A. Mysql Replication
B. Distributed Replicated Block Device (DRBD) and Mysql
C. Windows Cluster and Mysql
D. Solaris Cluster and Mysql
E. Mysql NDB Cluster
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are characteristic of the MEMORY storage engine?
A. Each table is represented on disk as an.frm file.
B. Each table has a corresponding.MYI and .MYD file.
C. It can support foreign keys.
D. It cannot contain text or BLOB columns.
E. Table contents are not saved if the server is restarted.
F. It can support transactions
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
A Mysql Server has been running an existing application successfully for six months.
The my.cnf is adjusted to 1Z0-883 vce contain the following additional configuration:
[mysqld]
Default-authentication-plugin=sha256_password
The Mysql Server is restarted without error.
What effect will the new configuration have in existing accounts?
A. They will have their passwords updated on start-up to sha256_password format.
B. They will have to change their password the next time they login to the server.
C. They are not affected by this configuration change.
D. They all connect via the secure sha256_password algorithm without any configuration change.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that 1Z0-883 pdf can properly encode your data.
Which three should influence your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS
C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Correct Answer: CDE

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