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Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution Upgrade – New 200-201 dumps

Posted by admin on October 25, 2023 in 200-201, 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution, 200-201 dumps, 200-201 dumps exam questions, 200-201 exam questions, About 200-201 CBROPS, Cisco, Cisco 200-201 CBROPS dumps, Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate, CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material, CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS, CyberOps Associate 200-201 PDF Download

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CyberOps Associate 200-201 Exam Overview
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Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution Upgrade

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From	Number of exam questions	Related exams
Lead4Pass	15	CCNA, CCNP

Question 1:

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A. Firepower

B. Email Security Appliance

C. Web Security Appliance

D. Stealthwatch

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A. cross-site scripting

B. man-in-the-middle

C. SQL injection

D. denial of service

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation

B. DDoS attack

C. phishing

D. man-in-the-middle

E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

Question 4:

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

A. principle of least privilege

B. role-based access control

C. separation of duties

D. trusted computing base

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor. Which type of evidence is this?

A. best evidence

B. prima facie evidence

C. indirect evidence

D. physical evidence

Correct Answer: C

There are three general types of evidence:

–> Best evidence: can be presented in court in the original form (for example, an exact copy of a hard disk drive).

–> Corroborating evidence: tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. –> Indirect or circumstantial evidence: extrapolation to a conclusion of fact (such as fingerprints, DNA evidence, and so on).

Question 6:

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external perimeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified\’? (Choose two.)

A. SOX

B. PII

C. PHI

D. PCI

E. copyright

Correct Answer: BC

Question 7:

While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header. Which technology makes this behavior possible?

A. encapsulation

B. TOR

C. tunneling

D. NAT

Correct Answer: D

Network address translation (NAT) is a method of mapping an IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device.

Question 8:

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.

B. Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C. Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D. Use NTFS partition for log file containment

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

A. transaction data

B. statistical data

C. session data

D. full packet capture

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

What is the impact of encryption?

A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department\’s servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

A. Recovery

B. Detection

C. Eradication

D. Analysis

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/specialpublications/nist.sp.800-61r2.pdf

Question 12:

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

A. The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B. The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C. The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D. The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation

C. separation of duties

D. needs to know the principle

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface. What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?

A. tagged protocols being used on the network

B. all firewall alerts and resulting mitigations

C. tagged ports being used on the network

D. all information and data within the datagram

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

A. SSL interception

B. packet header size

C. signature detection time

D. encryption

Correct Answer: D

…

CyberOps Associate 200-201 Exam Overview

Exam name:	Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Exam code:	200-201
Duration:	120 Minutes
Languages:	English
Price:	300$
Number of Questions:	95-105
Passing Score:	750-850 / 1000 Approx
Questions types:	Multiple choice (single and multiple answers) Drag-and-drop. Simulation. Fill-in-the-blank. Router and Switch Configuration Questions. Troubleshooting Questions. Testlet. Short Answer Questions.
Way to register:	In-person, Pearson VUE

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For individuals already working in IT, earning a Cisco CyberOps certification can provide opportunities for career advancement. It can qualify you to work as a security analyst, security operations center (SOC) analyst, or other cybersecurity positions

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700-765 dumps:Latest Cisco 700-765 ASASE exam material

Posted by admin on June 26, 2023 in 700-765, 700-765 ASASE exam material, 700-765 dumps, 700-765 exam material, 700-765 exam practice, 700-765 exam questions, 700-765 online practice, Cisco, Cisco 700-765 dumps, Cisco 700-765 dumps exam questions, Cisco 700-765 dumps PDF, latest updated Cisco 700-765 dumps, Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps

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From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Last updated
Lead4Pass	15	Cisco	700-765 dumps

New Question 1:

What are two features of Advanced Malware Protection AMP? (Choose Two)

A. Automated Policy Management

B. File Retrospection and Trajectory

C. Dynamic Malware Analysis

D. Automatic Behavioral Authorization

E. Local Threat intelligence

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 2:

Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)

A. Mobile

B. Email

C. Cloud

D. Web

E. Data Center

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 3:

What is one of the key features of Cognitive Intelligence?

A. It enables greater threat intelligence with entity modeling

B. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering

C. It enables safe email usage with event analytics

D. Allows visibility into anonymous and encrypted communications

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What are three security blind spots that must be addressed? (Choose Three)

A. Data

B. Applications

C. IT

D. Networks

E. Workloads

F. Email

Correct Answer: ABE

New Question 5:

What is one of the reasons that customers need a Visibility and Enforcement solution?

A. Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based

B. Businesses can\’t see or protect devices on their network

C. Organizations need the ability to block high-risk websites

D. Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What are two solutions Cisco offers for email security? (Choose Two)

A. AMP for Email Security

B. Umbrella

C. Meraki

D. Tetration

E. Cloudlock

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 7:

How does AnyConnect provide highly secure access for select enterprise mobile apps?

A. Per application VPN

B. Application Visibility and Control

C. identity Service Engine

D. Secure Layer 2 Network Access

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Which two security areas are part of Cisco\’s endpoint solutions? (Choose two)

A. Identity and Access Control

B. URL Filtering

C. Remote VPN

D. Cloud App Security

E. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers real-time access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 10:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 11:

What are two steps organizations must take to secure lot? (Choose Two)

A. remediate malfunctions

B. acquire subscription solutions

C. block contractors

D. update equipment

E. prevent blackouts

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 12:

What does Cisco provide via Firepower\’s simplified, consistent management?

A. Reduced complexity

B. Higher value

C. Improved speed to security

D. Reduced downtime

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

What percent of threats did ASA with FirePOWER block that earned AMP the highest security effectiveness scores in third-party testing?

A. 95.6%

B. 99.2%

C. 98.5%

D. 100%

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?

A. Secure Layer 2 Network Access

B. AnyConnect with AMP

C. Trusted Network Detection

D. Flexible AAA Options

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What are the three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose Three)

A. Roaming Security

B. VoiceandCollaboration

C. loT Security

D. Cloud Security

E. Advanced Threat

F. Firewalls

Correct Answer: CDE

…

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Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Update time
15	CCNA, CCNP	2023.6.20

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a vSwitch policy in the existing Cisco ACI fabric. The requirement is for the Cisco ACI leaf to learn individual MAC addresses from the same physical port. Which vSwitch policy configuration mode must be enabled to meet this requirement?

A. MAC pinning

B. MAC binding

C. LACP passive

D. LACP active

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

An organization deploys active-active data centers and active-standby firewalls in each data center. Which action should be taken in a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod to maintain traffic symmetry through the firewalls?

A. Enable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

B. Disable service node Health Tracking

C. Enable Pod ID Aware Redirection

D. Disable Resilient Hashing

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants to avoid connectivity problems for the endpoint EP1 when it reaches an external L3Out network through the gateway 10.2.2.254/24. Which two configurations must be implemented in BD-BD2? (Choose two.)

A. Disable unicast-routing

B. Enable IP data plane learning for the VRF

C. Disable ARP flooding

D. Enable ARP flooding

E. Enable unicast-routing

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 5:

In a Cisco ACI Multi-Site fabric, the Inter-Site BUM Traffic Allow option is enabled in a specific stretched bridge domain. What is used to forward BUM traffic to all endpoints in the same broadcast domain?

A. ingress replication on the spines in the source site

B. egress replication on the source leaf switches

C. egress replication on the destination leaf switches

D. ingress replication on the spines in the destination site

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://yves-louis.com/DCI/?p=1277

New Question 6:

An engineer must implement a full mesh Cisco ACI Multi-Site architecture. Which action must be taken on each spine to accomplish this goal?

A. Configure BGP-EVPN Router-ID

B. Configure Multi-Pod Data-Plane TEP

C. Configure Overlay Unicast TEP

D. Configure Overlay Multicast TEP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

A leaf receives unicast traffic that is destined for an unknown source, and a spine proxy is enabled in the corresponding bridge domain. Drag and drop the Cisco ACI forwarding operations from the left into the order the operation occurs on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

An engineer designs a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod solution that requires a pair of active-standby firewalls in different pods for external connectivity. How should the firewalls be implemented?

A. PBR for routed firewalls

B. separate L3Out peerings for routed firewalls

C. routed firewall for the default gateway

D. transparent firewalls

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739571.html

New Question 9:

A customer is deploying a new application across two ACI pods that is sensitive to latency and jitter. The application sets the DSCP values of packets to AF31 and CS6, respectively. Which configuration changes must be made on the APIC to support the new application and prevent packets from being delayed or dropped between pods?

A. disable the DSCP translation policy

B. align the ACI QoS levels and IPN QoS policies

C. disable DSCP mapping on the IPN devices

D. align the custom QoS policy on the EPG site in the customer tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKACI-2210.pdf

New Question 10:

An engineer created a Cisco ACI environment in which multiple tenants reuse the same contract. The requirement is to prevent inter-tenant communication. Which action meets this requirement?

A. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to VRF and export to other tenants

B. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to the Tenant

C. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to Global and export to other tenants

D. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to Global

Correct Answer: B

New Question 11:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 12:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

New Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the tenant implementation designs from the left onto the outcomes of the design when a greenfield Cisco ACI fabric is deployed on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

An engineer deploys a Cisco ACI Multi-Site Orchestrator for the first time. Drag and drop the actions from the left into the steps on the right to add a site and deploy new Cisco ACI objects to the fabric. Not all actions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam name	More related
15	Sep 14, 2022	Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure – Advanced (DCACIA) (300-630)	Cisco CCNP Exam Dumps (PDF+VCE)

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?

A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.

B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.

C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.

D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?

A. ECMP

B. TCP optimization

C. disabled fragmentation

D. jumbo frames

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtual-extensible-lan-and-ethernet-virt.html

Question 3:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

Question 4:

An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?

A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control

C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode

D. Disable Remote EP Learn

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

Question 6:

What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?

A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.

D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)

A. Select a common vPC interface policy group

B. Select individual interface profiles

C. Select common interface profiles

D. Select individual switch profiles

E. Select common switch profiles

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?

A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP

B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic

C. contract with no filter

D. permit-all contract filter

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010.html

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?

A. global

B. VRF

C. application

D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?

A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)

A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs

B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope

C. Change the contract scope to Tenant

D. Change the subject scope to VRF

E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.

B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.

C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.

D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.

E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/basic-configuration/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x_chapter_0110.html

Question 14:

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

Question 15:

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

…

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Posted by admin on June 8, 2023 in 200-301, 200-301 dumps, 200-301 dumps exam questions, 200-301 dumps pdf, 200-301 dumps vce, 200-301 exam practice, 200-301 exam questions, 200-301 exam solution, 200-301 online practice, 200-301 pdf, CCNA, Cisco

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From	Number of exam questions	Online Download	Associated certification
Lead4Pass	15	200-301 PDF	CCNA, CCNP

Question 1:

After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. deploy load balancers

B. configure additional vlans

C. configure multiple VRRP groups

D. deploy POE switches

E. configure additional security policies

Correct Answer: AE

Question 2:

A router received three destination prefixes: 10.0.0.0/8, 10.0.0.0/16, and 10.0.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0

o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

B. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0

C. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

D. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A. to speed up convergence

B. to reduce routing overhead

C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth

E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 4:

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)

A. Telnet

B. SSH

C. HTTP

D. HTTPS

E. TFTP

Correct Answer: AC

Question 5:

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A. LC to SC

B. SC to SC

C. LC to LC

D. SC to ST

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)

A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.

B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

Correct Answer: BD

The reported distance (or advertised distance) is the cost from the neighbor to the destination.

It is calculated from the router advertising the route to the network. For example in the topology below, suppose routers A and B are exchanging their routing tables for the first time.

Router B says “Hey, the best metric (cost) from me to IOWA is 50 and the metric from you to IOWA is 90” and advertises it to router A.

Router A considers the first metric (50) as the Advertised distance. The second metric (90), which is from NEVADA to IOWA (through IDAHO), is called the Feasible distance.

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 6

The reported distance is calculated in the same way as calculating the metric. By default (K1 = 1, K2 = 0, K3 = 1, K4 = 0, K5 = 0), the metric is calculated as follows:

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 6-1

A feasible successor is a backup route. To be a feasible successor, the route must have an Advertised distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route.

Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost between the local router and the next-hop router. The router must calculate the FD of all paths to choose the best path to put into the routing table.

Note: Although the new CCNA exam does not have an EIGRP topic you should learn the basic knowledge of this routing protocol.

Question 7:

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

A. IP

B. RTP

C. TCP

D. UDP

E. ARP

Correct Answer: CD

Question 8:

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

B. configuring a password for the console port

C. backing up Syslogs at a remote location

D. configuring enable passwords on network devices

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A. OpenFlow

B. Java

C. REST

D. XML

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 11

A. 192.168.0.7

B. 192.168.0.4

C. 192.168.0.40

D. 192.168.3.5

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?

A. backward compatibility with WPA and WPA2

B. safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

C. increased security and requirement of a complex configuration

D. optional Protected Management Frame negotiation

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

A. Null0

B. VIan58

C. Vlan60

D. VIan59

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 14

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

A. 255.255.255.240

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.248.

D. 255.255.255.248

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which protocol does an access point used to draw power from a connected switch?

A. Internet Group Management Protocol

B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C. Cisco Discovery Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C

…

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Cisco CCNP Enterprise Core Exam Solution | Leads4Pass 350-401 dumps

Posted by admin on May 25, 2023 in 350-401 dumps, 350-401 dumps pdf, 350-401 dumps vce, 350-401 ENCOR Exam, 350-401 Exam, 350-401 exam Methods, 350-401 exam practice, 350-401 exam questions, 350-401 online practice, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

The Cisco 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is specifically designed to assess your expertise in implementing core enterprise networking technologies at Cisco.

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From	Number of exam questions	Last updated	View answer
Lead4Pass	15	350-401 dumps	GO

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

A. Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B. Change the remote-as number to 192 168.100.11.

C. Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D. Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Verify answer

The EBGP neighbor for R1 is in the AS 6500, and not the same AS 5500

Question 2:

Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

A. vBond

B. vEdge

C. vSmart

D. vManange

Verify answer

The primary components for the Cisco SD-WAN solution consist of the vManage network management system (management plane), the vSmart controller (control plane), the vBond orchestrator (orchestration plane), and the vEdge router (data plane).

vManage -This centralized network management system provides a GUI interface to easily monitor, configure, and maintain all Cisco SD-WAN devices and links in the underlay and overlay network.

vSmart controller -This software-based component is responsible for the centralized control plane of the SD-WAN network. It establishes a secure connection to each vEdge router and distributes routes and policy information via the Overlay Management Protocol (OMP), acting as a route reflector. It also orchestrates the secure data plane connectivity between the vEdge routers by distributing crypto key information, allowing for a very scalable, IKE-less architecture.

vBond orchestrator -This software-based component performs the initial authentication of vEdge devices and orchestrates vSmart and vEdge connectivity. It also has an important role in enabling the communication of devices that sit behind Network Address Translation (NAT).

vEdge router -This device, available as either a hardware appliance or software-based router, sits at a physical site or in the cloud and provides secure data plane connectivity among the sites over one or more WAN transports. It is responsible for traffic forwarding, security, encryption, Quality of Service (QoS), routing protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and more.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf

Question 3:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from diet 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 4:

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?

A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205

B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205

C. configure dns-server 172.16.50.5

D. configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

Verify answer

172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type + Length + Value. The type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses times

4 in hex. Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2 * 4 = 8 =

0x08. The IP addresses translate to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”

Reference: Click

Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).

Question 5:

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

A. EIRP

B. dBi

C. RSSI

D. SNR

Verify answer

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna. This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries. In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

Question 6:

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 7:

If the AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

A. 6 dBm

B. 14 dBm

C. 17 dBm

D. 20 dBm

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/23231-powervalues-23231.html

Question 8:

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

A. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

B. Configure a local username with privilege level 15.

C. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.

D. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.

Verify answer

Question 9:

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A. WPA2 Personal

B. WPA3 Enterprise

C. WPA3 Personal

D. WPA2 Enterprise

Verify answer

WPA3-Personal provides the following key advantages:

•

Creates a shared secret that is different for each SAE authentication.

•

Protects against brute force “dictionary” attacks and passive attacks.

•

Provides forward secrecy. <–Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/catalyst-9100ax-access-points/wpa3-dep-guide-og.pdf

WPA3 Personal provides forward secrecy.

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/wpa3-bringing-robust-security-for-wi-fi-networks

Question 10:

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor

B. broadcasting on the local subnet

C. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain

D. DHCP Option 43

E. querying other APs

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/119286-lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html#backinfo

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

A GRE tunnel has been created between HO and BR routers. What is the tunnel IP on the HQ router?

A. 10.111.111.1

B. 10.111.111.2

C. 209.165.202.130

D. 209.165.202.134

Verify answer

In the above output, the IP address of “209.165.202.130” is the tunnel source IP while the IP 10.111.1.1 is the tunnel IP address.

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Verify answer

TCKOON is right the image is missing the channel-group 1 mode active statement but if you google it you will find the right picture.

Question 13:

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

A. egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B. ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C. egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D. ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

Verify answer

During operation, an Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) sends periodic Map-Register messages to all its configured map servers.

Question 14:

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A. IPsec

B. Basic Auth

C. GRE

D. OAuth 2.0

Verify answer

Question 15:

An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address to the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel interface?

A. (config-if)#tunnel destination

B. (config-if)#keepalive

C. (config-if)#ip mtu

D. (config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss

Verify answer

A GRE interface definition includes:

+ An IPv4 address on the tunnel + A tunnel source + A tunnel destination

Below is an example of how to configure a basic GRE tunnel:

interface Tunnel 0 IP address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source fa0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.0.2

In this case the “IPv4 address on the tunnel” is 10.10.10.1/24 and “sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface” is the command “tunnel source fa0/0”. Therefore it only needs a tunnel destination, which is 172.16.0.2.

Note: A multiple GRE (mGRE) interface does not require a tunnel destination address.

…

Verify answer

Number

Answers

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Cisco CCNP Security Core Exam Solution | Leads4Pass 350-701 dumps

Posted by admin on April 18, 2023 in 350-701, 350-701 dumps, 350-701 dumps 2023, 350-701 exam materials, 350-701 exam practice, 350-701 exam questions, 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR), 350-701 pdf, Cisco, Cisco 350-701, cisco 350-701 dumps, cisco 350-701 pdf, cisco 350-701 practice test, cisco 350-701 study guide, Cisco CCNP, implementing and operating cisco security core technologies (scor 350-701) pdf

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From	Type	Answers	Last updated
Lead4Pass	Free	View	350-701 dumps

Question 1:

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

A. phishing

B. slow loris

C. pharming

D. SYN flood

Question 2:

An administrator is configuring N IP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname

Question 3:

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A. Cisco FTD

B. Cisco AnyConnect

C. Cisco CTA

D. Cisco ASA

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cognitive- threat-analytics/at-a-glance-c45-736555.pdf

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

A. imports requests

B. HTTP authorization

C. HTTP authentication

D. plays dent ID

Question 5:

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A. Mail Submission Agent

B. Mail Transfer Agent

C. Mail Delivery Agent

D. Mail User Agent

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/SBA/February2013/Cisco_SBA_BN_ EmailSecurityUsingCiscoESADeploymentGuide-Feb2013.pdf

Question 6:

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A. HTTPS file upload site

B. Microsoft Windows network shares

C. SQL database injections

D. encrypted SMTP

Question 7:

What is a description of micro-segmentation?

A. Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B. Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C. Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D. Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question 8:

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 9:

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

A. transparent user identification

B. SOCKS proxy services

C. web usage controls

D. user session restrictions

Question 10:

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A. intent-based APIs

B. automation adapters

C. domain integration

D. application adapters

Question 11:

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A. Malware installation

B. Command-and-control communication

C. Network footprinting

D. Data exfiltration

Reference: https://www.netsurion.com/articles/5-types-of-dns-attacks-and-how-to-detect-them

Question 12:

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. virus

B. NTP amplification

C. ping of death

D. HTTP flood

Question 13:

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into DNAC with the native API?

A. lastSyncTime and paid

B. POST and name

C. userSudiSerialNos and devicelnfo

D. GET and serialNumber

To add a device to Cisco DNA Center with the native API, the API method used is POST which creates a new resource. One of the required attributes to add a device is the “name” attribute, which is used to specify the name of the device being added. The device name should be unique and it\’s used to identify the device within the Cisco DNA Center platform.

A GET request is used to retrieve information from a resource. “SerialNumber” and “userSudiSerialNos” are attributes used to identify a device but they are not required to add a device to Cisco DNA Center, they are needed to retrieve specific device information. “lastSyncTime” is an attribute used to indicate when the device last synced with Cisco DNA Center, it\’s not required to add a device. “pid” is an attribute used to identify a device\’s product ID, and it\’s not required to add a device.

Question 14:

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A. flow-export event-type

B. policy-map

C. access-list

D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E. access-group

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

Verify answer:

Questions:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

IMAGE

Summarize:

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Leads4Pass 350-501 dumps Latest Update for the 2023 Certification Exam

Posted by admin on March 2, 2023 in 350-501, 350-501 certification exam, 350-501 dumps, 350-501 dumps 2023, 350-501 exam dumps, 350-501 exam questions, 350-501 practice test, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

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Cisco 350-501 certification practice questions shared from Lead4Pass

Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Free	15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)	350-501

Question 1:

What are two features of stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)

A. It uses address overloading.

B. It provides 1:N translations, so it supports an unlimited number of endpoints.

C. It requires IPv4-translatable IPv6 address assignments.

D. It requires the IPv6 hosts to use either DHCPv6-based address assignments or manual address assignments.

E. It provides 1:1 translation, so it supports a limited number of endpoints.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/xe-16/nat-xe-16-book/iadnat-stateful-nat64.html

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 2

Routers P4 and P5 receive the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the ISP via eBGP peering. P4 is the primary Internet gateway router, and P5 is its backup. P5 is already advertising a default route into the OSPF domain. Which configuration must be applied to P4 so that it advertises a default route into OSPF and becomes the primary Internet gateway for the network?

A. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 2end

B. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 1end

C. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastredistribute bgp 65500 metric 40 metric-type 1end

D. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate always metric 40 metric-type 1end

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which OS uses a distributed subsystem architecture?

A. IOS XE

B. IOS

C. IOS XR

D. CatOS

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 4

An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2. For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.

Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE

B. send-labels on the ASBRs

C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs

D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs

E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 5

Router R1 is reporting that its BGP neighbor adjacency to router R2 is down, but its state is Active as shown. Which configuration must be applied to routers R1 and R2 to fix the problem?

A. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 update-source Loopback0

B. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

C. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

D. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer needs to implement the QOS mechanism on the customer\’s network as some applications going over the internet are slower than others.

Which two actions must the engineer perform when implementing traffic shaping on the network in order to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Configure a queue with sufficient memory to buffer excess packets.

B. Configure the token values in bytes.

C. Implement packet remarking for excess traffic.

D. Implement a scheduling function to handle delayed packets.

E. Configure a threshold over which excess packets are discarded.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 7:

An engineer must apply an 802.1ad-compliant configuration to a new switchport with these requirements:

The switchport must tag all trame when it enters the port

The switchport Is expected to provide the same level of service to traffic from any customer VLAN

Which configuration must the engineer use?

A. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qencapsulation ISLbridge-domain 12

B. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni c-portservice instance 12 encapsulation dot1qrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

C. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni s-portservice instance 12 encapsulation defaultrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

D. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad nni service instance 12 encapsulation dot1adbridge-domain 12

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/cether/configuration/xe-3s/asr903/16-12-1/b-ce-xe-16-12-asr900/m_ce_802_1ad_900.html

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 8

An administrator working for a large ISP must connect its two POP sites to provide internet connectivity to its customers. Which configuration must the administrator perform to establish an iBGP session between routers PE1 on POP site 1 and PE2 on POP site 2?

A. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#no neighbor 172.18.10.1 shutdown PE2(config-router)#end

B. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#no neighbor 172.19.10.10 shutdown PE1(config-router)#end

C. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE1(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.19.10.10 activate PE1(config-router-af)#end

D. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE2(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.18.10.1 activate PE2(config-router-af)#end

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

In a service provider network, a NOC engineer identifies an interface that flaps continuously. This interface connects to an EBGP peer. Which feature can reduce this instability in the service provider network?

A. Non-Stop Forwarding

B. BGP PIC

C. IGP Prefix Prioritization

D. IP Event Dampening

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 10

A large organization is merging the network assets of a recently acquired competitor with one of its own satellite offices in the same geographic area. The newly acquired network is running a different routing protocol than the company\’s primary network. As part of the merger, a network engineer implemented this route map. Which task must the engineer perform to complete the implementation?

A. Attach the route map to the redistribution command to manipulate the routes as they are shared.

B. Enable metric-style wide to allow the use of extended metrics from the protocols.

C. Configure an additional route map sequence to override the implicit deny at the end of the route map.

D. Attach the route map to an IS-IS network statement to advertise the routes learned on this interface to IS-IS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

After a series of unexpected device failures on the network, a Cisco engineer is deploying NSF on the network devices so that packets continue to be forwarded during switchovers. The network devices reside in the same building, but they are physically separated into two different data centers. Which task must the engineer perform as part of the deployment?

A. Implement an L2VPN with the failover peer to share state information between the active and standby devices.

B. Implement OSPF to maintain the link-state database during failover.

C. Implement VRFs and specify the forwarding instances that must remain active during failover.

D. Implement Cisco Express Forwarding to provide forwarding during failover.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

FRR is configured on a network. What occurs when the headend router on the path is alerted to a link failure over IGP?

A. LSP attempts fast switching on the backup path until the primary path returns to the active state.

B. The headend router uses a signaled LSP to bypass the failure point.

C. A new backup tunnel is established past the PLR to pass through the protected nodes.

D. Backup tunnel is established and intersects with the primary tunnel at the headend.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

A router RP is configured to perform MPLS LDP graceful restart.

Which three steps are included when the RP sends an LDP initialization message to a neighbor to establish an LDP session? (Choose three.)

A. Learn from Neighbor (N) flag, set to 1

B. Recovery Time field

C. Type-9 LSA

D. Reconnect Timeout field

E. Graceful restart capability in OPEN message

F. Learn from Network (L) flag, set to 1

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ha/configuration/xe-16-8/mp-ha-xe-16-8-book/nsf-sso-mpls-ldp-and-ldp-graceful-restart.html

Question 14:

A network engineer must enable the helper router to terminate the OSPF graceful restart process if it detects any changes in the LSA.

Which command enables this feature?

A. nsf ietf helper disable

B. nsf cisco helper disable

C. nsf ietf helper strict-lsa-checking

D. nsf cisco enforce global

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/ip_route/configuration/guide/tgrhelp.html

Question 15:

Which MPLS design attribute can you use to provide Internet access to a major customer through a separate dedicated VPN?

A. The Internet gateway router is connected as a PE router to the MPLS backbone.

B. The CE router supports VRF-Lite and the full BGP routing table.

C. The Internet gateway inserts the full Internet BGP routing table into the Internet access VPN.

D. The customer that needs the Internet access service is assigned to the same RTs as the Internet gateway.

Correct Answer: D

…

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Use Leads4Pass 350-801 dumps for the 2022-2023 350-801 CLCOR Certification Exam

Posted by admin on December 21, 2022 in 350-801 Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR), Cisco, Cisco 350-801, cisco 350-801 dumps, cisco 350-801 exam topics, cisco 350-801 practice exam, cisco 350-801 study guide, Cisco CCNP, implementing and operating cisco collaboration core technologies (clcor 350-801)

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350-801 certification exam questions and answers

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)	350-801	350-801 dumps

Question 1:

Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description

C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

Question 2:

An engineer configures Cisco Unified Communications Manager to prevent toll fraud. At which two points does the engineering block the pattern in Cisco Unified CM to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. route pattern

B. route group

C. translation pattern

D. partition

E. CSS

Correct Answer: CE

Question 3:

Which open-standard protocol is the basis for the Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol?

A. JSON

B. SIP

C. XML

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to Cisco Unified Communication Manager while outside of the office. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server.

B. The DNS record should be created for _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com.

C. The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com.

D. The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide_chapter_010.html

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly Which change should be made to resolve this issue?

A. codec g723ar63

B. codec g729br81

C. codec g726r32

D. codec g711ulaw

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.

B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.

C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.

D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two functions are provided by Cisco Expressway Series? (Choose two.)

A. interworking of SIP and H.323

B. endpoint registration

C. intercluster extension mobility

D. voice and video transcoding

E. voice and video conference

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-11/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2-4-with-Cisco-Expressway-Deployment-Guide_X8-11-4.pdf

Question 8:

How does an administrator make a Cisco IP phone display the last 10 digits of the calling number when the call is in the connected state, and also display the calling number in the E.164 format within call history on the phone?

A. Configure a translation pattern that has a Calling Party Transform Mask of XXXXXXXXXX.

B. On the inbound SIP trunk, change Significant Digits to 10.

C. Change the service parameter Apply Transformations On Remote Number to True.

D. Configure a calling party transformation pattern that keeps only the last 10 digits.

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 law with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports a packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating?

A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software

B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager

C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software

D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager

E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Expressway-C

C. Cisco UCM

D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-129_chapter_010000.html

Exam D

Question 11:

An administrator would like to set several Cisco Jabber configuration parameters to only apply to mobile clients (iOS and Android). How does the administrator accomplish this with Cisco Jabber 12.9 and Cisco UCM 12.5?

A. Assign the desired configuration file to “Mobile” Jabber Client Configuration in the Service Profile.

B. Deploy jabber-config-user.xml on iOS and Android devices.

C. Upload the jabber-config.enc file to TFTP

D. Create a user profile in Jabber Policies.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?

A. video conference bridge

B. auto-attendant

C. transcoder

D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/media.html

Question 13:

Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which two steps should be taken to a provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users?

A. Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone with an end user.

B. Plug the phone into the network.

C. Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone with an end user.

D. Enter the settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound).

E. Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone with an end user.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

An engineer configures a Cisco Unified Border Element and must ensure that the codecs negotiated to meet the ITSP requirements. The ITSP supports G.711ulaw and G.729 for audio and H.264 for video. The preferred voice codec is G.711. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 100

B. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

C. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

D. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g729r8 codec preference 2 g711ulaw video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/cube/configuration/cube-book/cube-codec-basic.html

…

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New update Leads4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF and VCE|200-901 DEVASC Exam

Posted by admin on November 21, 2022 in Cisco, cisco 200-901, cisco 200-901 dumps, cisco 200-901 exam dumps, cisco 200-901 study guide, Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 2020, devasc 200-901

New updated Lead4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF file and VCE practice exam engine to help pass the 200-901 DEVASC Exam successfully!

Lead4Pass 200-901 exam dumps contain 294 exam questions and answers, covering complete DevNet Associate 200-901 DEVASC certification exam questions, and verified to be true and valid, check here to get the latest Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-901.html (PDF+VCE).

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Also, read the latest 10 Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps questions and answers online:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
13	Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)	Lead4Pass	Sep 24, 2022	[Updated July 5, 2022] 200-901 dumps questions

New Question 1:

Which platform is run directly on top of a hypervisor?

A. bare metal systems

B. virtual machines

C. containers

D. applications

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer has developed a script to automate the gathering of information by providing the email address of the individual. When the engineer tests the script, a 401 error is received. Which command fixes the script?

A. Add “Authorization”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

B. Add “Authentication”: “Basic ” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

C. Add “:@” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

D. Add “Authentication”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. While developing a Cisco Webex bot, an application reaches the public IP address of the firewall, but traffic is forwarded to the IP address of server 1 instead of the IP address of server 2. What causes this issue?

A. The proxy server that rewrites traffic is misconfigured.

B. The router is sending the traffic to server 1 instead of server 2.

C. The switch is forwarding IP traffic to the wrong VLAN.

D. NAT is misconfigured on the firewall.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must collect information from the network. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Cisco Meraki API.

The script must run over nested loops to collect organization and network information and uses the collected data for final collection.

Which process is being automated by using the Python script?

A. Gather the IDs of the ACME organization, the BLDG21 network, and the dents on the network

B. Provide the BLDG21 network information if it is part of the ACME organization

C. Collect the IDs of the clients on the BLDG21 network

D. List the IDs from the ACME organization

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

What are the two principles of infrastructure as a code environment? (Choose two.)

A. Components are coupled, and definitions must be deployed for the environment to function.

B. Redeployments cause varying environmental definitions.

C. Environments must be provisioned consistently using the same inputs.

D. Service overlap is encouraged to cater to unique environmental needs.

E. Complete complex systems must be able to be built from reusable infrastructure definitions.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 6:

Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?

A. Webex Teams

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Finesse Gadgets

D. Webex Devices

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and Drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing on the Meraki Python script to create a new network.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

Access to the management interface of devices must be restricted by using SSH and HTTPS.

Which two ports must be included in the ACLs for the protocols to work? (Choose two.)

A. 22

B. 23

C. 80

D. 443

E. 880

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 9:

What are the two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)

A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration

B. configuration on devices becomes less complex

C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP

D. reduction in network changes performed manually

E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 10:

What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)

A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application

B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities

C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires

D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses

E. allows for the separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host

Correct Answer: AB

…

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[Update Nov 2022] CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBROPS EXAM MATERIAL

Posted by admin on November 7, 2022 in About 200-201 CBROPS, Cisco, Cisco 200-201 CBROPS dumps, CISCO CBROPS EXAM MATERIAL, Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate, Cisco CyberOps Associate One exam Certification, CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material, CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS, CyberOps Associate 200-201 PDF Download

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CyberOps Associate exam FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 200-201 CBROPS: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)
Certification: CyberOps Associate
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 95-105 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
200-201 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-201.html (CyberOps Associate exam dumps maps to Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam objectives)
200-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 264 Q&A
Last update time: Nov 02, 2022

Is CyberOps Associate certification worth it?

The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate is regarded by many as a great starting point for cyber security professionals. For instance, it offers enough entry-level fundamental concepts such as cryptography and Security Operations Center (SOC) basics. One of the best things about this cert is the fact that it doesn’t have any prerequisites.

For someone looking to break into cybersecurity, the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate makes sense. It covers key concepts around Cisco hardware and software, but not in too much detail. Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate also teaches you about security operations and is a good way to land a junior analyst role in a SOC.

–source: https://www.cbtnuggets.com/blog/certifications/cisco/new-cisco-certs-ccna-cyberops-vs-ccnp-security

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	[Free share] Update Nov 2022
15	Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)	Lead4pass	Oct 04, 2022	200-201 exam questions 16-28

New Question 1:

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

A. ransomware communicating after infection

B. users downloading copyrighted content

C. data exfiltration

D. user circumvention of the firewall

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q2

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

A. Base64 encoding

B. TLS encryption

C. SHA-256 hashing

D. ROT13 encryption

Correct Answer: B

ROT13 is considered weak encryption and is not used with TLS (HTTPS:443). Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT13

New Question 3:

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

A. sandbox

B. application allows list

C. application block list

D. host-based firewall

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/sandbox#:~:text=Sandboxes%20can%20be%20used%20to,be%20run%20inside%20a%20sandbox

New Question 4:

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of attack.

B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?

A. weaponization

B. delivery

C. exploitation

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence.

C. Tampered images are used as evidence.

D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Correct Answer: D

The disk image must be intact for forensics analysis. As a cybersecurity professional, you may be given the task of capturing an image of a disk in a forensic manner. Imagine a security incident has occurred on a system and you are required to perform some forensic investigation to determine who and what caused the attack. Additionally, you want to ensure the data that was captured is not tampered with or modified during the creation of a disk image process. Ref: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide

New Question 8:

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data availability

B. data normalization

C. data signature

D. data protection

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q10

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

A. Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B. Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C. Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D. Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

What is the function of a command and control server?

A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware

C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise

D. It sends instructions to a compromised system

Correct Answer: D

New Question 12:

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

A. internet

B. transport

C. application

D. data link

Correct Answer: C

A deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection\’s application layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q13

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q14

What is occurring?

A. Cross-Site Scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack

C. Insecure Deserialization

D. Regular GET requests

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q15

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

…

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