Latest Cisco Channel Partner Program 500-601 dumps,500-601 Practice test Questions and answers

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Latest effective Cisco Channel Partner Program 500-601 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the default MAC address for the distributed gateway in the Cisco ACI Fabric is true?
A. There is no default MAC address.
B. A custom MAC address must be configured under each bridge domain.
C. The default MAC address is 00 11;BD:F9:88:0C.
D. The default MAC address is 00:22:BD:F8:19:FF.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?
A. It will always be the switches first and the APICs second.
B. It will always be the APICs first and the switches second.
C. It will always depend on the specifics of the software release.
D. It does not matter which you upgrade first (ARC/Switch) or second (APIC/Switch)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two actions occur when an EPG is being validated on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. IDs assignment validation
B. VLAN validation
C. path validation
D. BD, CTX configured validation
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about contract policy enforcement are true? (Choose two)
A. The class ID (or PCTag) of the source EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fsbric.
B. Contracts are always enforced m the ingress leaf
C. The class ID (or PCTag) of the destination EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fabric
D. Contracts are sometimes enforced in the ingress leaf and sometimes in the egress leaf.
E. Contracts are always enforced m the egress leaf
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two DMEs are running on a leaf switch? (Choose two.)
A. policy element
B. appliance director
C. spine manager
D. event manager
E. topology manager
F. policy manager
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 8
Which action is needed on a Cisco UCS to make ACI dynamic discovery work?
A. Enable VLAN grouping on the fabric interconnect uplinks.
B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Policy on the Cisco UCSM vNICs
C. Forward the infrastructure VLAN toward the ESX.
D. Use MTU 9000.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A VMM endpoint off of a UCSB is unable to hit its anycast gateway, but the MAC address of the VM can be seen in one
of the fabric interconnects Wh1Ch option is the cause of the issue?
A. The active NIC on the host has gone down and the host has not yet failed over.
B. There is no native VLAN configured within the data path of the Cisco UCS.
C. LLDP is not enabled in the vSwitch policies.
D. The VLAN tag is being changed at the vNIC or uplink port.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
At which point during VMM integration do you need to create the vDS switch within vCenter?
A. when starting up the VM
B. No need to create the vDS, the Cisco APIC controller does that automatically.
C. after assigning the EPG to the VMM controller
D. before defining the VLAN pool that is assigned to the VMM controller
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco UCS policy is required for VM endpoints to be discovered by the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. LAN connectivity policy
B. network control policy
C. dynamic vNIC connection policy
D. LACP policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for silent hosts to
communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using the proxy
because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP originator, so
it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP to the spine,
and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the entry remains
indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE

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Latest effective Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol runs between the vSmart controllers and between the vSmart controllers and the vEdge routers, and
unifies all control plane functions under a single: protocol umbrella1?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. IKE
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which Cisco products were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 20 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose Two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRF tunnel lo a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Winch two primary categories are displayed on the overall health page of the assurance component in the Cisco DNA
Center? (Choose two.)
A. Wired
B. Client
C. Access-Distribution
D. Server
E. Network
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies Q allocating resources
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 12
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF


QUESTION 13
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 14
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy based automated provisioning of network of fabric
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 15
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Try

Best Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Questions Free Download

Latest Cisco 700-038 pdf exam study materials are written according to the latest real 700-038 IT cert exams. All the practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/700-038.html  100% success and guarantee to pass 700-038 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of Cisco 700-038 exam several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Answer: A,C
700-038
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which sequence of Cisco 700-038 dumps steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco 700-038 vce Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Answer: C,D
700-038
QUESTION NO: 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Cisco 700-038 Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and
technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT
executives? (Choose two)A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural
design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational
business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the
customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose
two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the
associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach
outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and
business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s
organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM?
(Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a
specific industry. Where can you find resources that help you address verticals?
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market CiscoC. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 21
Which process makes use of the Cisco Installed Base Lifecycle Management (IBLM) initiative and
transformative network approach?
A. a high-level approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
B. a high-level approach in understanding the customer business model
C. a detailed approach in understanding the customer business model
D. a detailed approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which
of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
B. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. revenue streams
B. key partners
C. key resources
D. channelsE. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Retail businesses must act quickly in order to innovate, respond to changing market conditions, enhance
customer service, and increase sales. Which option addresses this requirement?
A. Cisco Lean Retail
B. Cisco Connected Retail
C. Cisco Employee Optimization
D. Cisco Customer Experience Transformation
E. Cisco Secure Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco Telepresence product series exemplifies simple-to-use immersive collaboration?
A. TX Series
B. MX Series
C. Profile Series
D. EX Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help lo build BOM faster”? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
B. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer’s business.
C. They help to verify any BOM that is created.
D. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which activity belongs to mapping business requirements to Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. developing the high-level and detailed customer designs
B. applying the requirement to the Cisco architecture reference model
C. identifying items from the architecture that would be used, such as switches and routers
D. building the customer design
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Mobile Agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. An additional voice gateway is required for Silent Monitoring.
B. They extend and connect.
C. They perform call control features (example: Hold/Conference/Transfer) only from the agent desktop.
D. They are limited only to PSTN phones and mobile phone; IP phones are not supported.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, which two Dialing Modes
apply to Transfer to IVR based campaigns? (Choose two.)
A. Preview dialing mode
B. Direct Preview dialing mode
C. Progressive dialing mode
D. Predictive dialing mode
E. Callback mode
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, in which order does the
Campaign Manager process perform record queries to send them to Dialer for dialing?
A. pending contacts, callbacks, retries
B. callbacks, retries, pending contacts
C. retries, callbacks, pending contacts
D. pending contacts, pending callbacks, pending retries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary
servers accept when HTTPS protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop?
(Choose two.)
A. digital certificate
B. certificate authority certificate
C. domain validation certificate
D. self-signed certificate
E. root certificate
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How does the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution encrypt the logger database?
A. AES
B. SHA
C. MD5
D. TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which option is needed from the primary and secondary servers for
certificate authority to generate a root, intermediate, and application certificate for Cisco Finesse?
A. fully qualified domain name of the servers
B. physical MAC address of the NIC card from the Cisco Finesse servers
C. Certificate Signing Request
D. IP address of server
E. system ID of the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When using microapps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified
Communications Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
For the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Outbound option, which Cisco Unified Communications Manager
feature can be used to disable ringback during transfer to agent for a scenario that involves SIP trunks?
A. replaces header script
B. normalization script
C. association script
D. transformation script
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which type of MTP is supported with Cisco Unified Mobile Agent?
A. MTP Pass-Through
B. MTP No Pass-Through
C. MTP Pass-Around
D. MTP No Pass-Around
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 600-455 exam question

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), when agents login into the desktop as a Mobile Agent, which number is used in
the highlighted Extension field?
A. the local CTI port dialed number
B. the remote CTI port dialed number
C. agent PSTN number (accessible from CUCM/GW)
D. agent ID
E. agent reservation script dialed number
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Extensions on the same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to
forward inbound ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with clustering over the WAN, which statement
about the Cisco Unified Communications Manager peripheral gateway duplex pair is true?
A. Each side of the peripheral gateway pair (side A and side B) must be configured to point to a local and
a remote CTI Manager across the WAN from the PG location.
B. The peripheral gateway private network may be shared with any other private connections– peripheralgateways or call routers/loggers.
C. The peripheral gateway may use the highly available WAN connection between the sites (visible
network) for all traffic–visible and private.
D. The peripheral gateways must be co-located at one side or the other of the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications
Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution?
A. Add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration.
B. Add a second TFTP server to the cluster.
C. Add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Group defined in device pool of the Cisco IP Phone.
D. Use an SRST reference in the device pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
To maintain end-to-end reporting context, when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group, to
which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred?
A. route pattern
B. agent IP phone
C. CTI route point
D. translation pattern
E. translation route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is designed with geographic redundancy for the central
controllers (with separate call routers and loggers).
If Call Router Side A has device majority and its Ethernet private network NIC fails, which two events
occur? (Choose two.)
A. The Call Router Side B stays active, while the Call Router Side A goes idle.
B. The Call Router Side A stays active, while Call Router Side B goes idle.
C. There is no ability to make ICM configuration changes.
D. Both sides go out of service for small period of time, Call Router Side A goes active, and Call Router
Side B goes idle.
E. The system operates as it did prior to failure.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which failure scenario in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution stops all processing and
routing of contact center calls?
A. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
B. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
C. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
D. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
E. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Call Router Side B fails.F. ICM Logger Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model are true? (Choose two.)
A. With Cisco Unified Computing System C-Series Servers, you must deploy dual SAN on each data
center.
B. The visible network that supports the communication between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
subscriber nodes must be highly available and designed with no single point of failure.
C. Agents at remote locations must be registered to only one data center for their Cisco Unified IP Phone
connections if they are using Cisco Finesse.
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise IVR Peripheral Gateway cannot be split between the data
center locations to maintain a local JTAPI connection for call control.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Peripheral Gateways that are split between the two data
centers can share the same private network connection as the central controller (router and logger)
components.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which three statements about QoS in a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management solution are true?
(Choose three.)
A. In a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management network, if the traffic is marked in the ICM, QoS trust
needs to be enabled on access-layer routers and switches.
B. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 90 percent of total available
bandwidth.
C. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 75 percent of total available
bandwidth.
D. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 65 percent of total available
bandwidth.
E. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is no longer necessary.
F. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is still necessary.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 19
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified
Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three system responses are valid if the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (centralized
deployment with remote branches) and the remote branch lose the public network connection to both of
the data centers? (Choose three.)
A. The local voice gateway detects the failure of the communications path. The voice gateway goes into
SRST mode to provide local dial-tone functionality.B. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then executes local bootstrap TCL script, answers the call, and forwards it
to the hunt group.
C. The active call that arrived at the local PSTN connection and was answered by agent at that site
remains active, however, the agent peripheral gateway loses access to the call and creates a TCD
record.
D. The Cisco Finesse server detects the loss of connectivity to the agent desktop and automatically signs
the agent out of the system.
E. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then connects to the communication manager cluster to provide local dial-
tone functionality.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 21
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small
agents branch provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few
agents.
B. It requires only limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS
lines for emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering
over the WAN deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence
time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is
pinned to a single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network
path as redundant link with QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500
ms convergence time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to
ensure latency and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms
convergence time.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23
Which two options are required for the private link in the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution?
(Choose two.)
A. path diversity
B. Layer 3 quality of service prioritization and queuing
C. max of 1500 ms round trip time latency tolerance
D. variable layer subnet masking
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on
separatedomains.
Which two requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform DNS lookup of the other server using fully
qualified domain name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP address.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using
the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25
Which option describes the impact of co-loading the Cisco Unified Outbound SIP Dialer on the same
servers as the agent peripheral gateway in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer does not reduce agent capacity on the peripheral gateway server.
B. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of four–each outbound port is
equivalent to four agents on the peripheral gateway.
C. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 1.33–each outbound port is
equivalent to 1.33 agents on the peripheral gateway.
D. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 15–each outbound port is
equivalent to 15 agents on the peripheral gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the
supervisors are located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The
customer requires that supervisors from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With
BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP streams are needed between the data center and
agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which four items are factors of bandwidth requirements for the visible network connection between the
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent Peripheral Gateway and the call router? (Choose four.)
A. busy hour call attempts
B. number of skill groups per agent
C. number of agents
D. number of call types
E. percent of traffic with Courtesy Callback
F. number of call and ECC variables
G. number of concurrent real-time reports
H. percent of traffic requires Agent Greeting
I. percent of traffic requires Whisper AnnouncementsCorrect Answer: ABCF

QUESTION 28
Which VMware feature is supported for use with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. VMware vMotion
B. VMware distributed vSwitch
C. VMware consolidated backup
D. VMware snapshots
E. vDisk thick provisioning
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which two statements about a Contact Center Enterprise solution in virtualized environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A. UCS B/C series NIC teaming is supported.
B. 10/100 NIC speeds are supported.
C. Gigabit Ethernet Auto Negotiation is optional for NIC and switch.
D. 802.1Q uplinks to VMware hosts must not be configured for host/edge spanning-tree forwarding.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 30
In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), which VM network adapter type removes the requirement to disable the LRO
feature on the VM host?
A. Vlance network adapter type
B. Flexible VM network adapter type
C. E1000 network adapter type
D. VMXNET network adapter type
E. VMXNET3 network adapter type
Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-ucced.html

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0
Exam Code: 300-085
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QUESTION 1
In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.)
A. distribution list
B. application parameter settings script
C. business schedule
D. voice mail operator number
E. calling search space
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true?
A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it.
B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration.
C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster.
D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. SNMP community name
D. configuration template
E. enable remote access
F. persistent settings
G. E164 alias
H. gatekeeper
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unity Express
C. Cisco Unity
D. Cisco Unity Mobile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? 300-085 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 7
Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)
A. user
B. device
C. dial plan
D. routing rules
E. zone information
F. phone book
G. FindMe
H. gateway
Correct Answer: ABFG

QUESTION 8
Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.)
A. voice-enabled
B. phone keypad
C. forwarded rules
D. direct rules
E. standard hours
F. closed hours
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?
A. TMSXE
B. TMSXN
C. TMSBA
D. TMSPE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications.
D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user.
Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.)
A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length
B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length
C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords
D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length
E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords
F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP integration
B. TIMG integration
C. SIP integration
D. PIMG integration
E. H.323 integration
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. Inaccessible
B. Failed
C. Connected
D. Reachable on Public Internet
E. Behind Firewall
F. Online
G. Remote Site
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? 300-085 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN.
B. Listen to the opening greeting.
C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D. Enter user ID and PIN.
E. Log in to remote mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint system upgrades
B. edit call control
C. manage phone books
D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging
E. create voicemail account
F. create new conference
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 17
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)
A. endpoints
B. users
C. Cisco MCUs
D. multiway address
E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
G. video AutoAttendant numbers
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. IM and Presence publish trunk
B. route class trunk
C. processing on QSIG trunk
D. fail call over SIP trunk
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
Exam Code: 352-001
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QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? 352-001 dumps single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? 352-001 dumps (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Exam Code: 640-911
Total Questions: 208 Q&As

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Hot Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”

QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
“Originally, each RIP router transmitted full updates every 30 seconds.”

QUESTION 10
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? 640-911 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
640-911 dumps
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”

QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-165
Total Questions: 187 Q&As

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300-165 dumps

Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two issues explain why a packet is not being routed as desired in a policy-based routing configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a higher metric than the default next hop.
B. The route map is not applied to the egress interface.
C. The next hop that is configured in the route map is not in the global routing table.
D. The route map is not applied to the ingress interface.
E. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a lower metric than the default next hop.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When you configure LISP, which two components must be configured at the site edge? (Choose two.)
A. AED
B. ELAN
C. ITR
D. EOBC
E. ETR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which command should you ran to distribute NTP configuration changes by using Cisco Fabric Services?
A. ntp distribute
B. ntp server 1.2.3.4
C. ntp commit
D. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the datacenter. Which two options you can use to resolve the issue? 300-165 dumps (Choose two)
A. On the OTV VDC, configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevent the virtual FHRP MAC address forwarded on the overlay
B. On the OTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded
C. Configure the same FHRP priority on all the OTV edge devices in both sites
D. Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range
E. On the OTV edge devices, configure an IP ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?
A. router ospf
B. global configuration
C. vPC
D. interface
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two Nexus family line cards allow the configuration of features regarding LISP, OTV and MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. B1
B. F3
C. F2
D. F1
E. M2
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
B. manually by using global configuration mode
C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch. Port security is configured to use sticky learning. Where are the secured MAC addresses stored?
A. the running configuration
B. the startup configuration
C. NVRAM
D. RAM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
Ethernet interface 1/5 on Cisco Nexus 5548 is connected to Cisco UCS C220 rack server. What is the status of Ethernet 1/5 interface for FCoE functionality?
A. Interface reset on Ethernet 1/5 is preventing the FCoE connection from coming up
B. MTU size of 1500 on Ethernet interface 1/5 needs to be changed for FCoE to come UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 needs a layer 3 daughter card for FCoE to come UP on the Ethernet interface 1/5
D. Ethernet interface 1/5 is operational for FCoE and the status is UP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?
A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are two prerequisite to running the Smart Call Home feature on a Cisco nexus 6000 series switch? 300-165 dumps (Select two)
A. The switch must have SMTP access to an email server
B. The switch must have public management IP address
C. The switch must have SMTP access to a Cisco.com email server
D. The switch must have an active service contract
E. The switch must be configured to use an email address from the @cisco.com
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.
Select and Place:
300-165 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-165 dumps

QUESTION 15
Which command sequence correctly enables Adapter FEX on Nexus 5000 Series Switches?
A. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
B. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
C. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
D. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. random-detect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?
A. server-provided MAC address
B. Fibre Channel name server
C. fabric-provided MAC address
D. FIP proxy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which four options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Series Switch? 300-165 dumps (Choose four.)
A. line rate
B. managed by a parent switch
C. lossless 10 Gigabit Ethernet
D. lossless 100 Gigabit Ethernet
E. low latency
F. extremely low latency
G. hosts a virtual supervisor module
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 26
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (21-50)

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. 210-060 dumps A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? 210-060 dumps (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat? 210-060 dumps
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 42
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 47
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

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642-998 dumps
QUESTION 1
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable server over a Cisco UCS B Series blade server?
A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.) 642-998 dumps
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM- FEX feature.
Which statement about VM-FEX is true?
A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.
D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?
A. high-availability during fabric failover
B. proper placement of server role
C. over committing CPU resources
D. additional virtual machine scalability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows XP
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C. OS X
D. VMware vSphere 4.0
E. VMware vSphere 5.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.
B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.
C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.
D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.
E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? 642-998 dumps (Choose three.)
A. packet capture
B. packet decode
C. filter and error scan
D. configure virtual machine
E. configure Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?
A. packet debug
B. troubleshoot performance
C. traffic analysis
D. API management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A. transparent operation management through an XML API
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
C. template-based policy management
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
E. disruptive administration model
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)
A. export destination IP address
B. source interface
C. UDP port number
D. TCP port number
E. NAT port number
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?
A. 32-bit dotted hex
B. 48-bit dotted hex
C. 64-bit dotted hex
D. 128-bit dotted hex
E. 160-bit dotted hex
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?
A. FCoE
B. DCBX
C. FIP
D. distributed FCF
E. 802.1Qbb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways? 642-998 dumps
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4000
C. Cisco Nexus 3016
D. Cisco Nexus 2232
E. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?
A. PAgP port channel
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. host vPC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?
A. data center location
B. support for heterogeneous compute environments
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer
D. choice of a hypervisor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements? 642-998 dumps
A. cloud compute
B. storage
C. desktop
D. network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fullyaware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. ACE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5500
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: D

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