New update Lead4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF and VCE|200-901 DEVASC Exam

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 24, 2022[Updated July 5, 2022] 200-901 dumps questions
New Question 1:

Which platform is run directly on top of a hypervisor?

A. bare metal systems

B. virtual machines

C. containers

D. applications

Correct Answer: B


New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer has developed a script to automate the gathering of information by providing the email address of the individual. When the engineer tests the script, a 401 error is received. Which command fixes the script?

new 200-901 dumps questions 2

A. Add “Authorization”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

B. Add “Authentication”: “Basic ” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

C. Add “:@” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

D. Add “Authentication”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. While developing a Cisco Webex bot, an application reaches the public IP address of the firewall, but traffic is forwarded to the IP address of server 1 instead of the IP address of server 2. What causes this issue?

new 200-901 dumps questions 3

A. The proxy server that rewrites traffic is misconfigured.

B. The router is sending the traffic to server 1 instead of server 2.

C. The switch is forwarding IP traffic to the wrong VLAN.

D. NAT is misconfigured on the firewall.

Correct Answer: D


New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 4

A network engineer must collect information from the network. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Cisco Meraki API.

The script must run over nested loops to collect organization and network information and uses the collected data for final collection.

Which process is being automated by using the Python script?

A. Gather the IDs of the ACME organization, the BLDG21 network, and the dents on the network

B. Provide the BLDG21 network information if it is part of the ACME organization

C. Collect the IDs of the clients on the BLDG21 network

D. List the IDs from the ACME organization

Correct Answer: A


New Question 5:

What are the two principles of infrastructure as a code environment? (Choose two.)

A. Components are coupled, and definitions must be deployed for the environment to function.

B. Redeployments cause varying environmental definitions.

C. Environments must be provisioned consistently using the same inputs.

D. Service overlap is encouraged to cater to unique environmental needs.

E. Complete complex systems must be able to be built from reusable infrastructure definitions.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 6:

Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?

A. Webex Teams

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Finesse Gadgets

D. Webex Devices

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 7

Drag and Drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing on the Meraki Python script to create a new network.

Select and Place:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-1

Correct Answer:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-2
new 200-901 dumps questions 7-3

New Question 8:

Access to the management interface of devices must be restricted by using SSH and HTTPS.

Which two ports must be included in the ACLs for the protocols to work? (Choose two.)

A. 22

B. 23

C. 80

D. 443

E. 880

Correct Answer: AD


New Question 9:

What are the two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)

A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration

B. configuration on devices becomes less complex

C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP

D. reduction in network changes performed manually

E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes

Correct Answer: DE


New Question 10:

What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)

A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application

B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities

C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires

D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses

E. allows for the separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host

Correct Answer: AB


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[Update Nov 2022] CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBROPS EXAM MATERIAL

CyberOps Associate 200-201 Dumps is the Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam material for launching your career in cybersecurity operations.

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CyberOps Associate exam FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 200-201 CBROPS: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)
Certification: CyberOps Associate
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 95-105 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
200-201 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-201.html (CyberOps Associate exam dumps maps to Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam objectives)
200-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 264 Q&A
Last update time: Nov 02, 2022

Is CyberOps Associate certification worth it?

The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate is regarded by many as a great starting point for cyber security professionals. For instance, it offers enough entry-level fundamental concepts such as cryptography and Security Operations Center (SOC) basics. One of the best things about this cert is the fact that it doesn’t have any prerequisites.

For someone looking to break into cybersecurity, the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate makes sense. It covers key concepts around Cisco hardware and software, but not in too much detail. Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate also teaches you about security operations and is a good way to land a junior analyst role in a SOC.

–source: https://www.cbtnuggets.com/blog/certifications/cisco/new-cisco-certs-ccna-cyberops-vs-ccnp-security

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time[Free share] Update Nov 2022
15Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)Lead4passOct 04, 2022200-201 exam questions 16-28
New Question 1:

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

A. ransomware communicating after infection

B. users downloading copyrighted content

C. data exfiltration

D. user circumvention of the firewall

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q2

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

A. Base64 encoding

B. TLS encryption

C. SHA-256 hashing

D. ROT13 encryption

Correct Answer: B

ROT13 is considered weak encryption and is not used with TLS (HTTPS:443). Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT13


New Question 3:

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

A. sandbox

B. application allows list

C. application block list

D. host-based firewall

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/sandbox#:~:text=Sandboxes%20can%20be%20used%20to,be%20run%20inside%20a%20sandbox


New Question 4:

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of attack.

B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

Correct Answer: B


New Question 5:

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 6:

A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?

A. weaponization

B. delivery

C. exploitation

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence.

C. Tampered images are used as evidence.

D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Correct Answer: D

The disk image must be intact for forensics analysis. As a cybersecurity professional, you may be given the task of capturing an image of a disk in a forensic manner. Imagine a security incident has occurred on a system and you are required to perform some forensic investigation to determine who and what caused the attack. Additionally, you want to ensure the data that was captured is not tampered with or modified during the creation of a disk image process. Ref: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide


New Question 8:

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 9:

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data availability

B. data normalization

C. data signature

D. data protection

Correct Answer: B


New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q10

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

A. Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B. Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C. Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D. Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Correct Answer: D


New Question 11:

What is the function of a command and control server?

A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware

C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise

D. It sends instructions to a compromised system

Correct Answer: D


New Question 12:

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

A. internet

B. transport

C. application

D. data link

Correct Answer: C

A deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection\’s application layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.


New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q13

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q14

What is occurring?

A. Cross-Site Scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack

C. Insecure Deserialization

D. Regular GET requests

Correct Answer: B


New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q15

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)Lead4PassUpdated on: Sep 21, 2022Aug 28, 2022
New Question 1:

Which three customer business objectives do Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)

A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management

B. Visibility and control with a managed environment

C. Accelerated firewall implementation

D. Complete protection with holistic defense

E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions

F. Secure communications with advanced access

Correct Answer: BDE

New Question 2:

What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)

A. Malware clustering

B. Threat-based anomaly detection

C. Netflow monitoring

D. Data Loss Prevention

E. Realtime sandboxing

F. Forensic investigation

Correct Answer: BCF

New Question 3:

What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose Two) A. Unresponsive potential customers

B. Seller competition

C. Fragmented solutions

D. Complexity of solution components

E. Overcrowded portfolios

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 4:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)

A. Email

B. Mobile

C. Voicemail

D. Data Center

E. Web

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 70

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose Two)

A. advanced analytics

B. reputation analytics

C. intrusion analysis

D. dynamic URL filtering

E. dynamic data analysis

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 7:

What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?

A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources

B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence

C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources

D. Context, telemetry and intelligence sources

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers realtime access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)

A. pxGrid

B. Cisco Security Connector

C. Duo

D. Stealthwatch

E. AMP for Endpoints

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 10:

Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)

A. Industrial Network Director

B. Duo

C. Cisco Security Connector

D. Advanced Malware Protection

E. Identity Services Engine

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 11:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

Which two products are involved in granting safe access to apps? (Choose Two)

A. TrustSec

B. ISE

C. SD-Access

D. Duo

E. ACI

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 13:

Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?

A. Context-aware access

B. Centralized policy management

C. Platform exchange grid

D. Device profiling

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.

B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.

C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.

D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)

A. Threat Defense

B. Intrusion Analytics

C. Threat Analytics

D. Network Analytics

E. NGFW

F. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: CDF

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Share the latest updated Cisco 300-630 Dumps exam questions

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Number of exam questionsUpdate timeExam nameMore related
15Sep 14, 2022Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure – Advanced (DCACIA) (300-630)Cisco CCNP Exam Dumps (PDF+VCE)
Question 1:
300-630 dumps questions 1

Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?

A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.

B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.

C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.

D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?

A. ECMP

B. TCP optimization

C. disabled fragmentation

D. jumbo frames

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtual-extensible-lan-and-ethernet-virt.html

Question 3:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

Question 4:
300-630 dumps questions 4

An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?

A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control

C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode

D. Disable Remote EP Learn

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

Question 6:

What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?

A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.

D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:
300-630 dumps questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)

A. Select a common vPC interface policy group

B. Select individual interface profiles

C. Select common interface profiles

D. Select individual switch profiles

E. Select common switch profiles

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 8:
300-630 dumps questions 8

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?

A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP

B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic

C. contract with no filter

D. permit-all contract filter

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:
300-630 dumps questions 9

Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?

300-630 dumps questions 9-1
300-630 dumps questions 9-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010.html

Question 10:
300-630 dumps questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?

A. global

B. VRF

C. application

D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?

A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:
300-630 dumps questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)

A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs

B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope

C. Change the contract scope to Tenant

D. Change the subject scope to VRF

E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.

B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.

C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.

D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.

E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/basic-configuration/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x_chapter_0110.html

Question 14:
300-630 dumps questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

Question 15:
300-630 dumps questions 15

Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

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New Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express

B. Cisco 8540

C. Cisco 3504

D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

New Question 5:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

What switching product should you lead with for a midmarket customer?

A. Catalyst C9200

B. Catalyst SG 550xG

C. SG250X

D. C2960L

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard

B. remote wipe any device on the network

C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth

D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Which is a SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Correct Answer: C

New Question 11:

What is one challenge commonly facing Express Specialization Networking customers?

A. shrinking IT budget and resource scarcity

B. low number of devices connected to the network

C. do-it-yourself approach to network management

D. large, highly bureaucratic IT departments

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is one way that Mx security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability?

A. Always on (availability groups)

B. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)

C. Warm spare (using VRRP)

D. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default

B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers

C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support

D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user.

Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for HTTP request that sets up a personal metting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 3:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.

B. The credential was expired.

C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.

D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has capital letters and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t checks that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, WebEx meetings XML API service has processed the request.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. A webhook has been created so that an application is notified when users mention a bot in a Webex Teams space. The exhibit shows an example of a notification received by the application. Which code snippet correctly processes the JSON payload using the Webex Node.js SDK in order to print out messages that mention the bot?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Which xAPI access mechanism requires separate connections for commands and notifications?

A. Serial

B. WebSocket

C. HTTP/HTTPS

D. SSH

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 9:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.

B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.

C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.

D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.

E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 10:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\’s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\’ scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created from a public authority

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which Webex Teams REST API request has generated the response body in the exhibit?

A. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=lastactivity

B. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=created

C. GET/v1/rooms?max=1

D. GET/v1/spaces?orderBy=lastActivity

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. When using the Webex Browser SDK to create calls and share screens, which two statements are valid given a `webex\’ object such as displayed in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. After a meeting is joined, it cannot be left programmatically until the host ends the meeting.

B. The webex meetings.register() function must be invoked before attempting to join any meeting.

C. The joinMeeting() function throws an error of type `media stopped\’ if a media stream is stopped.

D. Given a Webex meeting number the webex meetings join() function can be used to join the meeting.

E. The mediaSettings for a joined meeting accepts boolean attributes to send and receive audio, video, and screen share.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing.

Which HTTP header is expected in this response?

A. Push

B. Link

C. Patch

D. Put

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms.

Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

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New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.

Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?

Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?

A. shared tree

B. MDT default

C. source tree

D. MDT voice

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?

A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.

B. The two routers have the same area ID.

C. The two routers have the same network ID.

D. The two routers have different IS-types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.

B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds

C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds

D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.

Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?

A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command

B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route

C. Filter the routes on the receiving router

D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.

Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?

A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets

B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?

A. shortest path calculated by IGP

B. dynamic rules

C. path policy

D. explicit maps

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?

A. The two devices have different process IDs

B. The two devices have different network types

C. The two devices have different router IDs

D. The two devices have the same area ID

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

A. type 3 LSA

B. type 4 LSA

C. type 1 LSA

D. type 2 LSA

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?

A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally

B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process

C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process

D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?

A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path

B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis

C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path

D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network

Correct Answer: C

……

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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE

 

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers

Share Cisco 350-801 exam questions for free

QUESTION 1:

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4:

What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5:

Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6:

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7:

An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8:

Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10:

lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE

Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11:

How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

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Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

……

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Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

 

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important!
In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
about lead4pass

Summarize:

This blog shares the latest Cisco 350-701 exam dumps, 350-701 exam questions and answers! 350-701 pdf, 350-701 exam video!
You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader!
Select Lead4Pass 350-701 exams Pass Cisco 350-701 exams “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)”. Help you successfully pass the 350-701 exam.

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