[Latest Questions] Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 Dumps Exam Study Guides Demo Youtube (Q1-Q20)

Get your Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps exam preparation questions in form of 300-085 PDF. Lead4pass is the best site for providing online preparation material for 300-085 exam. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNP Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/300-085.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 300-085 CAPPS – Cisco If you are looking to get Cisco Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0 certification by passing exam 300-085 then you can pass it in one go.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0
Exam Code: 300-085
Total Questions: 165 Q&As

High quality Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

High quality Cisco 300-365 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Vl3BcSbXnfokBm-tIiVaqcq7OR7m3ux-

Latest Cisco 300-080 dump exam study materials free try. The best useful Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps vce software online update free try.

Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.)
A. distribution list
B. application parameter settings script
C. business schedule
D. voice mail operator number
E. calling search space
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true?
A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it.
B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration.
C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster.
D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. SNMP community name
D. configuration template
E. enable remote access
F. persistent settings
G. E164 alias
H. gatekeeper
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unity Express
C. Cisco Unity
D. Cisco Unity Mobile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? 300-085 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 7
Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)
A. user
B. device
C. dial plan
D. routing rules
E. zone information
F. phone book
G. FindMe
H. gateway
Correct Answer: ABFG

QUESTION 8
Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.)
A. voice-enabled
B. phone keypad
C. forwarded rules
D. direct rules
E. standard hours
F. closed hours
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?
A. TMSXE
B. TMSXN
C. TMSBA
D. TMSPE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications.
D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user.
Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.)
A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length
B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length
C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords
D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length
E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords
F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP integration
B. TIMG integration
C. SIP integration
D. PIMG integration
E. H.323 integration
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. Inaccessible
B. Failed
C. Connected
D. Reachable on Public Internet
E. Behind Firewall
F. Online
G. Remote Site
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? 300-085 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN.
B. Listen to the opening greeting.
C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D. Enter user ID and PIN.
E. Log in to remote mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint system upgrades
B. edit call control
C. manage phone books
D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging
E. create voicemail account
F. create new conference
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 17
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)
A. endpoints
B. users
C. Cisco MCUs
D. multiway address
E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
G. video AutoAttendant numbers
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. IM and Presence publish trunk
B. route class trunk
C. processing on QSIG trunk
D. fail call over SIP trunk
Correct Answer: A

High quality Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

High quality Cisco 300-365 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Vl3BcSbXnfokBm-tIiVaqcq7OR7m3ux-

New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. Cisco CCNP Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/300-085.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-085 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Collaboration. It is the best choice for you to pass Cisco 300-085 exam.

Useful Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/vVU8Fl0cs58

[Latest Questions] 2018 Latest Cisco CCDE 352-001 Dumps Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q20)

Useful Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam study guides and learning materials in PDF format download free try from lead4pass. Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 352-001 questions that you need to know. “Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam” is the name of Cisco CCDE https://www.lead4pass.com/352-001.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Download Cisco CCDE real 352-001 dumps exam questions and verified answers. 352-001 CCDE – Cisco 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDE
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
Exam Code: 352-001
Total Questions: 501 Q&As

Google drive latest Cisco 352-001 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=19RfSRGrzEYsE4NUJ92xa714FOlCnGUf7

Google drive latest Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

Latest Cisco 700-039 dumps vce exam study materials free try, download the best useful Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps vce software online to have a free try.

2018 Latest Cisco CCDE 352-001 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? 352-001 dumps single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? 352-001 dumps (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC

Google drive latest Cisco 352-001 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=19RfSRGrzEYsE4NUJ92xa714FOlCnGUf7

Google drive latest Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

The best and most updated latest Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 352-001 exam test https://www.lead4pass.com/352-001.html, and to get certified by Cisco CCDE. If you are looking to get Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam certification by passing exam 352-001 then you can pass it in one go.

High quality Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/ysHdz3Eyr1g

[Latest Questions] Hot Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps PDF Training Resources VCE Youtube (Q1-Q30)

Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 640-911 questions that you need to know. The best useful latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared. “Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking” is the name of Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-911.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. You can download 640-911 DCICN – Cisco dumps pdf training material from lead4pass and pass the Cisco 640-911 exam in the first attempt.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Exam Code: 640-911
Total Questions: 208 Q&As

Latest Cisco 640-911 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRN3U2eVlMXzV5RmM

Latest Cisco 642-998 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRU1g2SDg0bVYzbHc

The best 700-260 dumps Cisco exam test practice questions and answers free download. Best useful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps vce software download free try.
640-911 dumps

Hot Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”

QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
“Originally, each RIP router transmitted full updates every 30 seconds.”

QUESTION 10
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? 640-911 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
640-911 dumps
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”

QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.
640-911 dumps
Useful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-911.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 640-911 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Data Center, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free with high pass rate.

New Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps vce youtube:

The Following Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

640-911 dumps

[Latest Questions] New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions Update Youtube Free Shared

New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps exam real questions and answers free download from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. Lead4pass is the best site for providing online preparation material for 300-165 exam. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure” is the name of Cisco CCNP Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/300-165.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. You will also get the 100% guarantee for passing the Cisco exam. Download Cisco CCNP Data Center real 300–165 exam questions and verified answers. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-165
Total Questions: 187 Q&As

Latest Cisco 300-165 dumps pdf free download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS1BVYmN4bjMtcU0

Latest Cisco 300-160 dumps pdf free download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRaThBc3h5VDkxZEE
300-165 dumps

Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two issues explain why a packet is not being routed as desired in a policy-based routing configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a higher metric than the default next hop.
B. The route map is not applied to the egress interface.
C. The next hop that is configured in the route map is not in the global routing table.
D. The route map is not applied to the ingress interface.
E. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a lower metric than the default next hop.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When you configure LISP, which two components must be configured at the site edge? (Choose two.)
A. AED
B. ELAN
C. ITR
D. EOBC
E. ETR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which command should you ran to distribute NTP configuration changes by using Cisco Fabric Services?
A. ntp distribute
B. ntp server 1.2.3.4
C. ntp commit
D. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the datacenter. Which two options you can use to resolve the issue? 300-165 dumps (Choose two)
A. On the OTV VDC, configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevent the virtual FHRP MAC address forwarded on the overlay
B. On the OTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded
C. Configure the same FHRP priority on all the OTV edge devices in both sites
D. Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range
E. On the OTV edge devices, configure an IP ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?
A. router ospf
B. global configuration
C. vPC
D. interface
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two Nexus family line cards allow the configuration of features regarding LISP, OTV and MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. B1
B. F3
C. F2
D. F1
E. M2
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
B. manually by using global configuration mode
C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch. Port security is configured to use sticky learning. Where are the secured MAC addresses stored?
A. the running configuration
B. the startup configuration
C. NVRAM
D. RAM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
Ethernet interface 1/5 on Cisco Nexus 5548 is connected to Cisco UCS C220 rack server. What is the status of Ethernet 1/5 interface for FCoE functionality?
A. Interface reset on Ethernet 1/5 is preventing the FCoE connection from coming up
B. MTU size of 1500 on Ethernet interface 1/5 needs to be changed for FCoE to come UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 needs a layer 3 daughter card for FCoE to come UP on the Ethernet interface 1/5
D. Ethernet interface 1/5 is operational for FCoE and the status is UP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?
A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are two prerequisite to running the Smart Call Home feature on a Cisco nexus 6000 series switch? 300-165 dumps (Select two)
A. The switch must have SMTP access to an email server
B. The switch must have public management IP address
C. The switch must have SMTP access to a Cisco.com email server
D. The switch must have an active service contract
E. The switch must be configured to use an email address from the @cisco.com
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.
Select and Place:
300-165 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-165 dumps

QUESTION 15
Which command sequence correctly enables Adapter FEX on Nexus 5000 Series Switches?
A. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
B. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
C. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
D. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. random-detect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?
A. server-provided MAC address
B. Fibre Channel name server
C. fabric-provided MAC address
D. FIP proxy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which four options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Series Switch? 300-165 dumps (Choose four.)
A. line rate
B. managed by a parent switch
C. lossless 10 Gigabit Ethernet
D. lossless 100 Gigabit Ethernet
E. low latency
F. extremely low latency
G. hosts a virtual supervisor module
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 26
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D

Why Choose Lead4 pass?

High quality IT learning materials offered by the best provider lead4pass. From the following picture, you can see there is a difference between lead4pass and other brands. Other brands started earlier, but the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the cheapest and newest questions with high pass rate.
300-165 dumps
Practice for your Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps exam with the help of lead4pass, at lead4pass you can find all the necessary things for yourself that will help you to pass Cisco 300-165 exam. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing https://www.lead4pass.com/300-165.html exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Data Center. Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary 300-165 questions that you need to know.

High quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/Bgdsl_0Wp3o

The Following Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

300-165 dumps

[Latest Questions] Which is the Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube

Which is the latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam questions? Get the latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download from lead4pass. Newest helpful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco CCNA Collaboration. The best useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try, pass Cisco 210-060 exam test easily at first attempt.

Latest Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf training materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

Latest Cisco 210-260 dumps pdf training materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRcnI0SE83bHBvQ1k
210-060 dumps

The Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (21-50)

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. 210-060 dumps A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? 210-060 dumps (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat? 210-060 dumps
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 42
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 47
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

Here Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

210-060 dumps
Click here to have a review about us: ttps://www.resellerratings.com/store/lead4pass

The best and most updated useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam practice files in PDF format free download from lead4pass. High quality latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 210-060 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/m-BuaXGVy3U

Why Select Lead4pass?

Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Other brands appeared early, the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.
210-060 dumps

[Latest Questions] Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo Free Update

Are you ready for Cisco 642-998 exam? Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing” is the name of Cisco CCNP Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/642-998.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update free try, pass Cisco 642-998 exam test quickly and easily at the first time.

Latest Cisco 642-998 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRU1g2SDg0bVYzbHc

Latest Cisco 642-999 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1XCHpmRKo9HG6hXJraxo6SUOE0440YYem
642-998 dumps
QUESTION 1
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable server over a Cisco UCS B Series blade server?
A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.) 642-998 dumps
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM- FEX feature.
Which statement about VM-FEX is true?
A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.
D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?
A. high-availability during fabric failover
B. proper placement of server role
C. over committing CPU resources
D. additional virtual machine scalability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows XP
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C. OS X
D. VMware vSphere 4.0
E. VMware vSphere 5.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.
B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.
C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.
D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.
E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? 642-998 dumps (Choose three.)
A. packet capture
B. packet decode
C. filter and error scan
D. configure virtual machine
E. configure Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?
A. packet debug
B. troubleshoot performance
C. traffic analysis
D. API management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A. transparent operation management through an XML API
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
C. template-based policy management
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
E. disruptive administration model
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)
A. export destination IP address
B. source interface
C. UDP port number
D. TCP port number
E. NAT port number
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?
A. 32-bit dotted hex
B. 48-bit dotted hex
C. 64-bit dotted hex
D. 128-bit dotted hex
E. 160-bit dotted hex
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?
A. FCoE
B. DCBX
C. FIP
D. distributed FCF
E. 802.1Qbb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways? 642-998 dumps
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4000
C. Cisco Nexus 3016
D. Cisco Nexus 2232
E. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?
A. PAgP port channel
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. host vPC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?
A. data center location
B. support for heterogeneous compute environments
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer
D. choice of a hypervisor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements? 642-998 dumps
A. cloud compute
B. storage
C. desktop
D. network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fullyaware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. ACE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5500
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: D

Newest helpful Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 dumps exam practice materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. Useful latest Cisco CCNP Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/642-998.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 642-998 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Data Center, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

High quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/grJjRumFC9Y

[Latest Questions] Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Dumps Exam Real Answers And Youtube Update

Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps real exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Newest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. The best and most updated Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf training materials free try, pass Cisco 210-065 exam test easily at first try.

Best Cisco 210-065 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRODRqVmVBYWxuc0k

Best Cisco 210-060 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, 210-065 dumps which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the administrator? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. 210-065 dumps
Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
Correct Answer: BD

Best useful Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides free download from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 210-065 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration, 100% success and guarantee to pass.

High quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 vce youtube: https://youtu.be/rWZzQKxnlJQ

[Latest Questions] Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

Latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam practice questions and answers update free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated useful Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared. “CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)” is the name of Cisco CCNA https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free update, pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily at first try.

Best useful Cisco 200-125 dumps pdf practice questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSnZDMkVUWDJzLWM

Best useful Cisco 200-105 dumps pdf practice questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS3BsT2duT3pTSlU
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is configured in enable mode.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which WAN protocol is being used?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
You have determined that computer A cannot ping computer B. 200-125 dumps Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The computer A subnet mask is incorrect.
B. The computer B subnet mask is incorrect.
C. The computer B default gateway address is incorrect.
D. The computer A default gateway address is incorrect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security   200-125 dumps
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 200-125 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA. 100% success and guarantee to pass!

High quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps vce youtube demo: https://youtu.be/nF4Ul2viODM

[Latest Questions] Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo Free Shared

Latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps exam training resources and vce youtube update demo free shared. Get the best and most updated useful Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps exam practice materials free download from lead4pass. “CCIE Data Center Written Exam” is the name of Cisco CCIE https://www.lead4pass.com/400-151.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Helpful Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps exam study guides free update. High quality Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps exam questions and answers update free try, pass Cisco 400-151 exam test easily at the first time.

Latest Cisco 400-151 dumps pdf training resources free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRckZpZkNpcG54Tmc

Latest Cisco 400-051 dumps pdf training resources free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRT1hKeEdyemtPZ28

400-151 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes the concepts of rootkits and privilege escalation?
A. Rootkits propagate themselves.
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are a result of a privilege escalation.
D. Both of these require a TCP port to gain access.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? 400-151 dumps (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results?
A. firewall
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options describe the main purpose of EIGRP authentication?(Choose two)
A. to allow faster convergence
B. to identify authorized peers
C. to provide redundancy
D. to provide routing updates confidentiality
E. to prevent injection of incorrect routing information
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing? 400-151 dumps (Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
Correct Answer: AC
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 9
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

Latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing https://www.lead4pass.com/400-151.html exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCIE. Cisco CCIE is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

Latest Cisco CCIE 400-151 dumps vce youtube demo: https://youtu.be/joc-44478yM

[Latest Questions] 100% Pass With Best Cisco 300-115 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Shared

Prepare for Cisco 300-115 exam with the best Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps real exam practice questions and answers shared from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo free update. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training materials and study guides free try, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

The best Cisco 300-115 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VROUdnZWRYLTJta1E

The best Cisco 300-135 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS21DRS14UlZHNjg

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit,
300-115 dumps
which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise? 300-115 dumps
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html dumps exam questions and answers free update, high quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training materials and study guides shared.

The best Cisco 300-115 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/wyXFLuYtFpI