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QUESTION 1
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS
ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type
must be selected?
A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4
What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?
A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.
B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby
mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number
into a localized format?
A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7
An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?
A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?
A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled disconnect a multiparty call when
the call initiator hangs up?
A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two
messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PRACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is
necessary to enable MGCP?
A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

 

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

 

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

 

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

 

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-535 exam dumps, 300-535 exam questions and answers! 300-535 pdf, 300-535 exam video!
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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROPlead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

 

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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This exam requires a foundation or apprentice knowledge of network design for the Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks.

Latest updates Cisco CCDA 200-310 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs

between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use the existing WAN.

Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used? 

A. VPLS 

B. L2TPv3 

C. OTV 

D. AToM 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 2

A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy

to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.) 

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit 

B. ISDN BRI 

C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet 

D. DWDM l 

E. POTS Line T1 WAN 

Correct Answer: AC 

QUESTION 3

Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right. 

Select and Place:lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts?
A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?
A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. extra large
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase uplink
utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding
new physical connections?
A. enable spanning-tree portfast
B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Applications
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which STP feature allows an access port to bypass the learning and listening states?
A. Root Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. BPDU Guard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two considerations are important when designing the access layer? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. QoS services
C. routing between VLANs
D. HSRP implementation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A. G.711
B. G.718
C. G.722
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC
Frame relay is old \\’shared\\’ technology today\\’s sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is an example of a fixed two-level hierarchical routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. static routes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is one of the methods that Cisco routers and switches can use to share information between directly
connected devices on a regular basis?
A. NetFlow
B. ARP
C. NHRP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: D

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Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)” Exam 210-065. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-065 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-065 exam: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of and skills to implement various Cisco Video endpoints in converged Cisco video infrastructures. It also tests a candidate’s ability to implement and troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communication and Collaboration, TelePresence, and Digital Media Player in different Cisco business video solution architectures. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam.

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Free Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. bursty
Correct Answer: CDEG

 

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid high-contrast elements
C. Use earth tone paint colors
D. Avoid plants or decorations
E. Use glossy finishes
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/cts_3010/assembly_guide/3010_assembly_guide/3010_room_recommendations.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco DMS component is used for content recording?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco TCS
C. Cisco DMM
D. Cisco DMP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a
Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the
local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/profile-series/tc6/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc60.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which two fields must be configured for a Cisco TelePresence device to connect to a Phonebook source? (Choose
two.)
A. Phonebook Server > URL
B. Phonebook Server > Type
C. Phonebook Server > Provisioning
D. Phonebook Server > Phonebook
E. Phonebook Server > Host
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which three features does a Cisco TelePresence Content Server provide that a Cisco MCU cannot? (Choose three.)
A. conference bridge virtualization support
B. multiple conference layouts
C. resource optimization via conductor
D. 720p resolution at 60 fps
E. 1080p resolution at 60 fps
F. multiscreen immersive room endpoint support
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 7
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias > Template > Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > Template
C. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > H.323 > Template
D. Recording Alias > Workflow > Template > Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: Dlead4pass 210-065 exam question q8

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/mx-series/tc7/administration-guide/mx700-mx800-administrator-guide-tc72.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Manager
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server
Correct Answer: AC
Features and Benefits
Benefits of Cisco TMS include:
Scalable provisioning: Cisco TMS can support rapid, large-scale deployments of up to 100,000 Cisco TelePresence
users, endpoints, and soft clients across disparate customer locations, including up to 5,000 direct-managed devices.
Centralized administration: Cisco TMS automates and simplifies the management of Cisco Telepresence meetings and
Cisco Telepresence infrastructure resources, reducing your total cost of ownership (TCO). Flexible scheduling: Cisco
TMS makes scheduling Cisco Telepresence meetings more accessible with a range of tools including a simple and
intuitive Smart Scheduler option, extensions for Microsoft Exchange integration, and advanced booking capabilities for
experienced administrators.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which conference types can occur at any time without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created
as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Correct Answer: E
Rendezvous conferences (also called meet-me, static, or permanent conferences) require endpoints to dial in to a
predetermined multipoint resource. These multipoint resources are shared by a number of endpoints and are capable of
hosting many conferences at the same time. Because a dedicated device is used to host rendezvous conferences,
these conferences can have many more participants than multisite conferences (but not necessarily more than an ad-
hoc conference on a dedicated multipoint device).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/confernc.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features are supported by the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server? (Choose two.)
A. motion detection
B. clustering
C. IP and analog cameras
D. MPEG-2 and MPEG-4 encoding
E. virtual matrix
Correct Answer: AC
Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server features include:
Flexibility to use a broad array of analog cameras and IP cameras
Simultaneous MJPEG and MPEG-4 encoding
Low-latency video with high-quality images
CIF, 2CIF, and 4CIF, up to 30 fps
PTZ and alarm inputs
Motion detection
Scalable deployment with multiple sites, cameras, users, and storage
Archives at different frame rate, duration, and location
Efficient redundant multi-site archiving that conserves bandwidth
Loop-and event-tagged video recording and event export (video clip) capabilities
Ability to connect to external storage
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/28981/cisco-video-surveillance-encoding-server

 

QUESTION 12
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for
TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber
registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence
capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in
the same network.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which function does a Cisco TCS recording alias perform?
A. It links recorded media to a specified output location.
B. It provides a dialable alias that will trigger a TCS recording workflow.
C. It sends media to Cisco Medianet.
D. It provides an alias for the recorded filename.
Correct Answer: B
Understanding Recording Aliases
The Content Server records calls and can produce the resulting recordings in a range of formats and sizes for users to
watch or download. Creators of recordings can make recordings available to all or selected users. To make recordings,
creators must use a recording alias. A recording alias defines several properties, including ones related to dialing the
Content Server from an endpoint for the recording session; specifying recording outputs; and indicating viewing and
editing
permissions (see Recording Alias Properties).
There are two types of recording alias:
System recording aliases, which can be used by any user in the creator or site manager role.
Personal recording aliases, which have owners in the creator role. Owners can edit certain parts of their recording
aliases: recording settings, default recording information, and default recording permissions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html#wp999176

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Free Cisco 210-060 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

In which three ways does QoS provide better network service VoIP quality? (Choose three.) 

A. minimizes priority queuing 

B. manages network congestion 

C. improves loss characteristics 

D. supports dedicated bandwidth 

E. decreases traffic priorities 

F. increases packet size 

Correct Answer: BCD 

In general, QoS provides better (and more predictable) network service by providing the following features: ?Supporting

dedicated bandwidth ?Improving loss characteristics ?Avoiding and managing network congestion ?Shaping network

traffic ?Setting traffic priorities across the network Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/qos_solutions/QoSVoIP/QoSVoIP.pdf 

 

QUESTION 2

An engineer is selecting a digital media player and must ensure that there are Ethernet downlink ports. Which model

has these ports? 

A. Edge 300 DMP 

B. Edge 340 DMP 

C. 4310 DMP 

D. 4400 DMP 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 

A. Port Monitor 

B. Called Party Tracing 

C. System Summary 

D. Trace and Log Central 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator

configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? 

A. Cisco Quality Report Tool 

B. System Log Management 

C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting 

D. Cisco JTAPI 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 5

How many servers can be supported in a Cisco IM and Presence Service Cluster? 

A. 10 

B. 2 

C. 8 

D. 6 

E. 4 

Correct Answer: D 

The Cisco IM and Presence Service cluster consists of up to a maximum of six servers, which can be configured into

multiple subclusters with the maximum of three subclusters for high availability. 

 

QUESTION 6

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-
peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-1 lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-2

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port
used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-3

 

QUESTION 7
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement
assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco 7800
C. Cisco DX650
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which four fields are required when manually configuring IP phones in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
(Choose four.)
A. MAC Address
B. IP Address
C. Hunt Group
D. VLAN ID
E. Device Pool
F. Phone Button Template
G. Dial Peer
H. Device Security Profile
Correct Answer: AEFH

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer has updated the company dial plan and wants to get rid of unassigned numbers. Which action must be
taken in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to accomplish this task?
A. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Group
B. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Plan Report
C. Delete unassigned DNs under Route List
D. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Pattern
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91_chapter_0101111.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid plants or decorations
C. Use glossy finishes
D. Avoid high-contrast elements
E. Use earth tone paint colors
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is configuring a user to have Cisco Extension Mobility. Where is the line configured?
A. Primary Extension
B. Device Profile
C. User Configuration
D. CAPF Profile
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user\\’s 7945 IP
phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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