What are two features of Advanced Malware Protection AMP? (Choose Two)
A. Automated Policy Management
B. File Retrospection and Trajectory
C. Dynamic Malware Analysis
D. Automatic Behavioral Authorization
E. Local Threat intelligence
Correct Answer: BC
New Question 2:
Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)
A. Mobile
B. Email
C. Cloud
D. Web
E. Data Center
Correct Answer: CE
New Question 3:
What is one of the key features of Cognitive Intelligence?
A. It enables greater threat intelligence with entity modeling
B. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering
C. It enables safe email usage with event analytics
D. Allows visibility into anonymous and encrypted communications
Correct Answer: D
New Question 4:
What are three security blind spots that must be addressed? (Choose Three)
A. Data
B. Applications
C. IT
D. Networks
E. Workloads
F. Email
Correct Answer: ABE
New Question 5:
What is one of the reasons that customers need a Visibility and Enforcement solution?
A. Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based
B. Businesses can\’t see or protect devices on their network
C. Organizations need the ability to block high-risk websites
D. Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
What are two solutions Cisco offers for email security? (Choose Two)
A. AMP for Email Security
B. Umbrella
C. Meraki
D. Tetration
E. Cloudlock
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 7:
How does AnyConnect provide highly secure access for select enterprise mobile apps?
A. Per application VPN
B. Application Visibility and Control
C. identity Service Engine
D. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Which two security areas are part of Cisco\’s endpoint solutions? (Choose two)
A. Identity and Access Control
B. URL Filtering
C. Remote VPN
D. Cloud App Security
E. Malware Protection
Correct Answer: AE
New Question 9:
What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.
B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers real-time access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.
Correct Answer: AE
New Question 10:
What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)
A. More users
B. More IT professionals
C. More devices
D. More networks
E. More vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 11:
What are two steps organizations must take to secure lot? (Choose Two)
A. remediate malfunctions
B. acquire subscription solutions
C. block contractors
D. update equipment
E. prevent blackouts
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 12:
What does Cisco provide via Firepower\’s simplified, consistent management?
A. Reduced complexity
B. Higher value
C. Improved speed to security
D. Reduced downtime
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
What percent of threats did ASA with FirePOWER block that earned AMP the highest security effectiveness scores in third-party testing?
A. 95.6%
B. 99.2%
C. 98.5%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: D
New Question 14:
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
B. AnyConnect with AMP
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Flexible AAA Options
Correct Answer: A
New Question 15:
What are the three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose Three)
A. Roaming Security
B. VoiceandCollaboration
C. loT Security
D. Cloud Security
E. Advanced Threat
F. Firewalls
Correct Answer: CDE
…
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An engineer is configuring a vSwitch policy in the existing Cisco ACI fabric. The requirement is for the Cisco ACI leaf to learn individual MAC addresses from the same physical port. Which vSwitch policy configuration mode must be enabled to meet this requirement?
A. MAC pinning
B. MAC binding
C. LACP passive
D. LACP active
Correct Answer: A
New Question 2:
An organization deploys active-active data centers and active-standby firewalls in each data center. Which action should be taken in a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod to maintain traffic symmetry through the firewalls?
A. Enable Endpoint Dataplane Learning
B. Disable service node Health Tracking
C. Enable Pod ID Aware Redirection
D. Disable Resilient Hashing
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants to avoid connectivity problems for the endpoint EP1 when it reaches an external L3Out network through the gateway 10.2.2.254/24. Which two configurations must be implemented in BD-BD2? (Choose two.)
A. Disable unicast-routing
B. Enable IP data plane learning for the VRF
C. Disable ARP flooding
D. Enable ARP flooding
E. Enable unicast-routing
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)
A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active
B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning
C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning
D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active
E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive
F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 5:
In a Cisco ACI Multi-Site fabric, the Inter-Site BUM Traffic Allow option is enabled in a specific stretched bridge domain. What is used to forward BUM traffic to all endpoints in the same broadcast domain?
A. ingress replication on the spines in the source site
B. egress replication on the source leaf switches
C. egress replication on the destination leaf switches
D. ingress replication on the spines in the destination site
A leaf receives unicast traffic that is destined for an unknown source, and a spine proxy is enabled in the corresponding bridge domain. Drag and drop the Cisco ACI forwarding operations from the left into the order the operation occurs on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 8:
An engineer designs a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod solution that requires a pair of active-standby firewalls in different pods for external connectivity. How should the firewalls be implemented?
A customer is deploying a new application across two ACI pods that is sensitive to latency and jitter. The application sets the DSCP values of packets to AF31 and CS6, respectively. Which configuration changes must be made on the APIC to support the new application and prevent packets from being delayed or dropped between pods?
A. disable the DSCP translation policy
B. align the ACI QoS levels and IPN QoS policies
C. disable DSCP mapping on the IPN devices
D. align the custom QoS policy on the EPG site in the customer tenant
An engineer created a Cisco ACI environment in which multiple tenants reuse the same contract. The requirement is to prevent inter-tenant communication. Which action meets this requirement?
A. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to VRF and export to other tenants
B. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to the Tenant
C. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to Global and export to other tenants
D. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to Global
Correct Answer: B
New Question 11:
Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)
A. Create vPC+
B. Enable LACP active mode
C. Create PAgP
D. Create vPC
E. Enable MAC pinning
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 12:
An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?
Drag and drop the tenant implementation designs from the left onto the outcomes of the design when a greenfield Cisco ACI fabric is deployed on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
An engineer deploys a Cisco ACI Multi-Site Orchestrator for the first time. Drag and drop the actions from the left into the steps on the right to add a site and deploy new Cisco ACI objects to the fabric. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.
B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.
C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.
D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?
Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)
A. Create vPC+
B. Enable LACP active mode
C. Create PAgP
D. Create vPC
E. Enable MAC pinning
Correct Answer: BE
Question 4:
An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?
A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check
B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control
C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode
D. Disable Remote EP Learn
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?
What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?
A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.
D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. Select a common vPC interface policy group
B. Select individual interface profiles
C. Select common interface profiles
D. Select individual switch profiles
E. Select common switch profiles
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP
B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic
C. contract with no filter
D. permit-all contract filter
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?
Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?
A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED
B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED
C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED
D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs
B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope
C. Change the contract scope to Tenant
D. Change the subject scope to VRF
E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface
Correct Answer: BE
Question 13:
Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.
B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.
C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.
D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.
E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)
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CCNA 200-301 dumps are the latest and most effective exam solution to aid candidates in their pre-exam practice!
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After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two.)
A. deploy load balancers
B. configure additional vlans
C. configure multiple VRRP groups
D. deploy POE switches
E. configure additional security policies
Correct Answer: AE
Question 2:
A router received three destination prefixes: 10.0.0.0/8, 10.0.0.0/16, and 10.0.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0
o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0
o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1
o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2
B. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0
o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0
C. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0
o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2
D. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0
o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1
o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to speed up convergence
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 4:
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. HTTPS
E. TFTP
Correct Answer: AC
Question 5:
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
A. LC to SC
B. SC to SC
C. LC to LC
D. SC to ST
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.
B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
Correct Answer: BD
The reported distance (or advertised distance) is the cost from the neighbor to the destination.
It is calculated from the router advertising the route to the network. For example in the topology below, suppose routers A and B are exchanging their routing tables for the first time.
Router B says “Hey, the best metric (cost) from me to IOWA is 50 and the metric from you to IOWA is 90” and advertises it to router A.
Router A considers the first metric (50) as the Advertised distance. The second metric (90), which is from NEVADA to IOWA (through IDAHO), is called the Feasible distance.
The reported distance is calculated in the same way as calculating the metric. By default (K1 = 1, K2 = 0, K3 = 1, K4 = 0, K5 = 0), the metric is calculated as follows:
A feasible successor is a backup route. To be a feasible successor, the route must have an Advertised distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route.
Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost between the local router and the next-hop router. The router must calculate the FD of all paths to choose the best path to put into the routing table.
Note: Although the new CCNA exam does not have an EIGRP topic you should learn the basic knowledge of this routing protocol.
Question 7:
Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. RTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: CD
Question 8:
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
A. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure
B. configuring a password for the console port
C. backing up Syslogs at a remote location
D. configuring enable passwords on network devices
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
A. OpenFlow
B. Java
C. REST
D. XML
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
A. 192.168.0.7
B. 192.168.0.4
C. 192.168.0.40
D. 192.168.3.5
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?
A. backward compatibility with WPA and WPA2
B. safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE
C. increased security and requirement of a complex configuration
D. optional Protected Management Frame negotiation
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?
A. Null0
B. VIan58
C. Vlan60
D. VIan59
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.248.
D. 255.255.255.248
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which protocol does an access point used to draw power from a connected switch?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
…
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The primary components for the Cisco SD-WAN solution consist of the vManage network management system (management plane), the vSmart controller (control plane), the vBond orchestrator (orchestration plane), and the vEdge router (data plane).
+
vManage -This centralized network management system provides a GUI interface to easily monitor, configure, and maintain all Cisco SD-WAN devices and links in the underlay and overlay network.
+
vSmart controller -This software-based component is responsible for the centralized control plane of the SD-WAN network. It establishes a secure connection to each vEdge router and distributes routes and policy information via the Overlay Management Protocol (OMP), acting as a route reflector. It also orchestrates the secure data plane connectivity between the vEdge routers by distributing crypto key information, allowing for a very scalable, IKE-less architecture.
+
vBond orchestrator -This software-based component performs the initial authentication of vEdge devices and orchestrates vSmart and vEdge connectivity. It also has an important role in enabling the communication of devices that sit behind Network Address Translation (NAT).
+
vEdge router -This device, available as either a hardware appliance or software-based router, sits at a physical site or in the cloud and provides secure data plane connectivity among the sites over one or more WAN transports. It is responsible for traffic forwarding, security, encryption, Quality of Service (QoS), routing protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and more.
An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:
The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?
172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type + Length + Value. The type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses times
4 in hex. Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2 * 4 = 8 =
0x08. The IP addresses translate to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”
Reference: Click
Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).
Question 5:
In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?
Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna. This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries. In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.
A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?
A. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.
B. Configure a local username with privilege level 15.
C. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.
D. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.
An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?
An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address to the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel interface?
In this case the “IPv4 address on the tunnel” is 10.10.10.1/24 and “sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface” is the command “tunnel source fa0/0”. Therefore it only needs a tunnel destination, which is 172.16.0.2.
Note: A multiple GRE (mGRE) interface does not require a tunnel destination address.
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A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.
Which type of attack is the device undergoing?
A. phishing
B. slow loris
C. pharming
D. SYN flood
Question 2:
An administrator is configuring N IP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)
A. Specify the NTP version
B. Configure the NTP stratum
C. Set the authentication key
D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server
E. Set the NTP DNS hostname
Question 3:
Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?
Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?
A. virus
B. NTP amplification
C. ping of death
D. HTTP flood
Question 13:
Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into DNAC with the native API?
A. lastSyncTime and paid
B. POST and name
C. userSudiSerialNos and devicelnfo
D. GET and serialNumber
To add a device to Cisco DNA Center with the native API, the API method used is POST which creates a new resource. One of the required attributes to add a device is the “name” attribute, which is used to specify the name of the device being added. The device name should be unique and it\’s used to identify the device within the Cisco DNA Center platform.
A GET request is used to retrieve information from a resource. “SerialNumber” and “userSudiSerialNos” are attributes used to identify a device but they are not required to add a device to Cisco DNA Center, they are needed to retrieve specific device information. “lastSyncTime” is an attribute used to indicate when the device last synced with Cisco DNA Center, it\’s not required to add a device. “pid” is an attribute used to identify a device\’s product ID, and it\’s not required to add a device.
Question 14:
Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)
A. flow-export event-type
B. policy-map
C. access-list
D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15
E. access-group
Question 15:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
…
Verify answer:
Questions:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Answers:
D
CE
C
C
B
B
A
IMAGE
A
A
D
A
B
AB
IMAGE
Summarize:
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Cisco 350-501 certification practice questions shared from Lead4Pass
Type
Number of exam questions
Exam name
Exam code
Free
15
Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)
350-501
Question 1:
What are two features of stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)
A. It uses address overloading.
B. It provides 1:N translations, so it supports an unlimited number of endpoints.
C. It requires IPv4-translatable IPv6 address assignments.
D. It requires the IPv6 hosts to use either DHCPv6-based address assignments or manual address assignments.
E. It provides 1:1 translation, so it supports a limited number of endpoints.
Routers P4 and P5 receive the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the ISP via eBGP peering. P4 is the primary Internet gateway router, and P5 is its backup. P5 is already advertising a default route into the OSPF domain. Which configuration must be applied to P4 so that it advertises a default route into OSPF and becomes the primary Internet gateway for the network?
Which OS uses a distributed subsystem architecture?
A. IOS XE
B. IOS
C. IOS XR
D. CatOS
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2. For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.
Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE
B. send-labels on the ASBRs
C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs
D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs
E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs
Correct Answer: BD
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is reporting that its BGP neighbor adjacency to router R2 is down, but its state is Active as shown. Which configuration must be applied to routers R1 and R2 to fix the problem?
A. R1
router bgp 5400
neighbor 11.11.11.11 remote-as 5400
neighbor 11.11.11.11 update-source Loopback0
R2
router bgp 5400
neighbor 11.11.11.12 remote-as 5400
neighbor 11.11.11.12 update-source Loopback0
B. R1
router bgp 5400
neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400
neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0
R2
router bgp 5400
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400
neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0
C. R1
router bgp 5400
neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400
R2
router bgp 5400
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400
D. R1
router bgp 5400
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400
neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0
R2
router bgp 5400
neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400
neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
An engineer needs to implement the QOS mechanism on the customer\’s network as some applications going over the internet are slower than others.
Which two actions must the engineer perform when implementing traffic shaping on the network in order to accomplish this task? (Choose two)
A. Configure a queue with sufficient memory to buffer excess packets.
B. Configure the token values in bytes.
C. Implement packet remarking for excess traffic.
D. Implement a scheduling function to handle delayed packets.
E. Configure a threshold over which excess packets are discarded.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 7:
An engineer must apply an 802.1ad-compliant configuration to a new switchport with these requirements:
1.
The switchport must tag all trame when it enters the port
2.
The switchport Is expected to provide the same level of service to traffic from any customer VLAN
Which configuration must the engineer use?
A. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qencapsulation ISLbridge-domain 12
B. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni c-portservice instance 12 encapsulation dot1qrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12
C. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni s-portservice instance 12 encapsulation defaultrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12
D. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad nni service instance 12 encapsulation dot1adbridge-domain 12
An administrator working for a large ISP must connect its two POP sites to provide internet connectivity to its customers. Which configuration must the administrator perform to establish an iBGP session between routers PE1 on POP site 1 and PE2 on POP site 2?
In a service provider network, a NOC engineer identifies an interface that flaps continuously. This interface connects to an EBGP peer. Which feature can reduce this instability in the service provider network?
A. Non-Stop Forwarding
B. BGP PIC
C. IGP Prefix Prioritization
D. IP Event Dampening
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
A large organization is merging the network assets of a recently acquired competitor with one of its own satellite offices in the same geographic area. The newly acquired network is running a different routing protocol than the company\’s primary network. As part of the merger, a network engineer implemented this route map. Which task must the engineer perform to complete the implementation?
A. Attach the route map to the redistribution command to manipulate the routes as they are shared.
B. Enable metric-style wide to allow the use of extended metrics from the protocols.
C. Configure an additional route map sequence to override the implicit deny at the end of the route map.
D. Attach the route map to an IS-IS network statement to advertise the routes learned on this interface to IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
After a series of unexpected device failures on the network, a Cisco engineer is deploying NSF on the network devices so that packets continue to be forwarded during switchovers. The network devices reside in the same building, but they are physically separated into two different data centers. Which task must the engineer perform as part of the deployment?
A. Implement an L2VPN with the failover peer to share state information between the active and standby devices.
B. Implement OSPF to maintain the link-state database during failover.
C. Implement VRFs and specify the forwarding instances that must remain active during failover.
D. Implement Cisco Express Forwarding to provide forwarding during failover.
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
FRR is configured on a network. What occurs when the headend router on the path is alerted to a link failure over IGP?
A. LSP attempts fast switching on the backup path until the primary path returns to the active state.
B. The headend router uses a signaled LSP to bypass the failure point.
C. A new backup tunnel is established past the PLR to pass through the protected nodes.
D. Backup tunnel is established and intersects with the primary tunnel at the headend.
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
A router RP is configured to perform MPLS LDP graceful restart.
Which three steps are included when the RP sends an LDP initialization message to a neighbor to establish an LDP session? (Choose three.)
Which MPLS design attribute can you use to provide Internet access to a major customer through a separate dedicated VPN?
A. The Internet gateway router is connected as a PE router to the MPLS backbone.
B. The CE router supports VRF-Lite and the full BGP routing table.
C. The Internet gateway inserts the full Internet BGP routing table into the Internet access VPN.
D. The customer that needs the Internet access service is assigned to the same RTs as the Internet gateway.
Correct Answer: D
…
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An engineer configures Cisco Unified Communications Manager to prevent toll fraud. At which two points does the engineering block the pattern in Cisco Unified CM to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. route pattern
B. route group
C. translation pattern
D. partition
E. CSS
Correct Answer: CE
Question 3:
Which open-standard protocol is the basis for the Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol?
A. JSON
B. SIP
C. XML
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to Cisco Unified Communication Manager while outside of the office. What is the cause of this issue?
A. Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server.
B. The DNS record should be created for _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com.
C. The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com.
D. The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly Which change should be made to resolve this issue?
A. codec g723ar63
B. codec g729br81
C. codec g726r32
D. codec g711ulaw
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
Which action enables Cisco MRA?
A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Which two functions are provided by Cisco Expressway Series? (Choose two.)
How does an administrator make a Cisco IP phone display the last 10 digits of the calling number when the call is in the connected state, and also display the calling number in the E.164 format within call history on the phone?
A. Configure a translation pattern that has a Calling Party Transform Mask of XXXXXXXXXX.
B. On the inbound SIP trunk, change Significant Digits to 10.
C. Change the service parameter Apply Transformations On Remote Number to True.
D. Configure a calling party transformation pattern that keeps only the last 10 digits.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 law with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports a packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating?
A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software
B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager
C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software
D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager
E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software
Correct Answer: BD
Question 10:
Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?
An administrator would like to set several Cisco Jabber configuration parameters to only apply to mobile clients (iOS and Android). How does the administrator accomplish this with Cisco Jabber 12.9 and Cisco UCM 12.5?
A. Assign the desired configuration file to “Mobile” Jabber Client Configuration in the Service Profile.
B. Deploy jabber-config-user.xml on iOS and Android devices.
C. Upload the jabber-config.enc file to TFTP
D. Create a user profile in Jabber Policies.
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?
Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Which two steps should be taken to a provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users?
A. Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone with an end user.
B. Plug the phone into the network.
C. Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone with an end user.
D. Enter the settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound).
E. Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone with an end user.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 15:
An engineer configures a Cisco Unified Border Element and must ensure that the codecs negotiated to meet the ITSP requirements. The ITSP supports G.711ulaw and G.729 for audio and H.264 for video. The preferred voice codec is G.711. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264
dial-peer voice 101 VoIP
session protocol sipv2
destination el64-pattern-map 1
voice-class codec 100
B. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8
dial-peer voice 101 VoIP
session protocol sipv2
destination el64-pattern-map 1
voice-class codec 10
C. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264
dial-peer voice 101 VoIP
session protocol sipv2
destination el64-pattern-map 1
voice-class codec 10
D. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g729r8 codec preference 2 g711ulaw video codec h264
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Which platform is run directly on top of a hypervisor?
A. bare metal systems
B. virtual machines
C. containers
D. applications
Correct Answer: B
New Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer has developed a script to automate the gathering of information by providing the email address of the individual. When the engineer tests the script, a 401 error is received. Which command fixes the script?
A. Add “Authorization”: “Bearer ” to the headers.
B. Add “Authentication”: “Basic ” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.
C. Add “:@” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.
D. Add “Authentication”: “Bearer ” to the headers.
Correct Answer: A
New Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit. While developing a Cisco Webex bot, an application reaches the public IP address of the firewall, but traffic is forwarded to the IP address of server 1 instead of the IP address of server 2. What causes this issue?
A. The proxy server that rewrites traffic is misconfigured.
B. The router is sending the traffic to server 1 instead of server 2.
C. The switch is forwarding IP traffic to the wrong VLAN.
D. NAT is misconfigured on the firewall.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must collect information from the network. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Cisco Meraki API.
The script must run over nested loops to collect organization and network information and uses the collected data for final collection.
Which process is being automated by using the Python script?
A. Gather the IDs of the ACME organization, the BLDG21 network, and the dents on the network
B. Provide the BLDG21 network information if it is part of the ACME organization
C. Collect the IDs of the clients on the BLDG21 network
D. List the IDs from the ACME organization
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
What are the two principles of infrastructure as a code environment? (Choose two.)
A. Components are coupled, and definitions must be deployed for the environment to function.
B. Redeployments cause varying environmental definitions.
C. Environments must be provisioned consistently using the same inputs.
D. Service overlap is encouraged to cater to unique environmental needs.
E. Complete complex systems must be able to be built from reusable infrastructure definitions.
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 6:
Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?
A. Webex Teams
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Finesse Gadgets
D. Webex Devices
Correct Answer: A
New Question 7:
DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and Drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing on the Meraki Python script to create a new network.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 8:
Access to the management interface of devices must be restricted by using SSH and HTTPS.
Which two ports must be included in the ACLs for the protocols to work? (Choose two.)
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 443
E. 880
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 9:
What are the two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)
A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration
B. configuration on devices becomes less complex
C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP
D. reduction in network changes performed manually
E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 10:
What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)
A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application
B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities
C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires
D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses
E. allows for the separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host
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The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate is regarded by many as a great starting point for cyber security professionals. For instance, it offers enough entry-level fundamental concepts such as cryptography and Security Operations Center (SOC) basics. One of the best things about this cert is the fact that it doesn’t have any prerequisites.
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An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?
A. ransomware communicating after infection
B. users downloading copyrighted content
C. data exfiltration
D. user circumvention of the firewall
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.
Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?
How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?
A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of attack.
B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.
C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.
D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation
Correct Answer: B
New Question 5:
An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.
B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.
C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.
D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 6:
A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?
A. weaponization
B. delivery
C. exploitation
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: B
New Question 7:
What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence.
C. Tampered images are used as evidence.
D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
Correct Answer: D
The disk image must be intact for forensics analysis. As a cybersecurity professional, you may be given the task of capturing an image of a disk in a forensic manner. Imagine a security incident has occurred on a system and you are required to perform some forensic investigation to determine who and what caused the attack. Additionally, you want to ensure the data that was captured is not tampered with or modified during the creation of a disk image process. Ref: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide
New Question 8:
What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?
A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.
B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.
C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.
D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 9:
Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data availability
B. data normalization
C. data signature
D. data protection
Correct Answer: B
New Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?
What is the function of a command and control server?
A. It enumerates open ports on a network device
B. It drops secondary payload into malware
C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise
D. It sends instructions to a compromised system
Correct Answer: D
New Question 12:
At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Correct Answer: C
A deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection\’s application layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.
New Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?
A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.
B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.
C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.
D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is occurring?
A. Cross-Site Scripting attack
B. XML External Entitles attack
C. Insecure Deserialization
D. Regular GET requests
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.
B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.
C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.
D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.
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Which three customer business objectives do Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)
A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management
B. Visibility and control with a managed environment
C. Accelerated firewall implementation
D. Complete protection with holistic defense
E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions
F. Secure communications with advanced access
Correct Answer: BDE
New Question 2:
What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)
A. Malware clustering
B. Threat-based anomaly detection
C. Netflow monitoring
D. Data Loss Prevention
E. Realtime sandboxing
F. Forensic investigation
Correct Answer: BCF
New Question 3:
What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose Two) A. Unresponsive potential customers
B. Seller competition
C. Fragmented solutions
D. Complexity of solution components
E. Overcrowded portfolios
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 4:
Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)
A. Email
B. Mobile
C. Voicemail
D. Data Center
E. Web
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 5:
On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 30
D. 70
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose Two)
A. advanced analytics
B. reputation analytics
C. intrusion analysis
D. dynamic URL filtering
E. dynamic data analysis
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 7:
What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?
A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources
B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence
C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources
D. Context, telemetry and intelligence sources
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.
B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers realtime access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.
Correct Answer: AE
New Question 9:
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. pxGrid
B. Cisco Security Connector
C. Duo
D. Stealthwatch
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: DE
New Question 10:
Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)
A. Industrial Network Director
B. Duo
C. Cisco Security Connector
D. Advanced Malware Protection
E. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 11:
What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)
A. More users
B. More IT professionals
C. More devices
D. More networks
E. More vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 12:
Which two products are involved in granting safe access to apps? (Choose Two)
A. TrustSec
B. ISE
C. SD-Access
D. Duo
E. ACI
Correct Answer: BD
New Question 13:
Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?
A. Context-aware access
B. Centralized policy management
C. Platform exchange grid
D. Device profiling
Correct Answer: D
New Question 14:
Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?
A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.
B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.
C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.
D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 15:
What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)
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