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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature allows an MPLS TE tunnel to be used by an IGP at the headend of the tunnel ?
A. MPLS TE Forwarding Adjacency
B. Generalized MPLS
C. Different Services traffic Engineering
D. MPLS TE link management
E. MPLS TE autoroute announce
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2

The exhibit illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between MPLS VPN inter-AS. The exhibit also
shows ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses. Which command is needed to change the next-hop address when
ASBR2 is not configured?
A. Redistribute command with the BGP routing process
B. Redistribute command with connected
C. Redistribute command with the IGP routing process
D. Redistribute command with static
Correct Answer: B
Figure 11-3 illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between autonomous systems. The only
difference is that ASBR2 is configured with the redistribute connected command, which propagates the host routes to all
PEs. The redistribute connected command is necessary because ASBR2 is not the configured to change the next hop
address.

lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2-1

Figure 11-3 Host Routes Propagated to All PEs Between Two Autonomous Systems
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/4.0/mpls/user/guide/11_isc.html

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and
that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three MPLS Traffic-eng DS-TE models are defined by IETF standard? (Choose three)
A. GRDM
B. MAR
C. MAM
D. RDM
E. G-BAM
F. A-RDM
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Assume two routers on the same subnet, R1 and R2, both configured for HSRP. R1 has a priority of 120. Which of the
following HSRP interface configurations will always result in the R2 becoming the primary? (Choose two.)
A. standby 1 priority 120
B. standby 1 priority 130 preempt
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 priority 120 preempt
E. standby 1 priority 110 preempt
F. standby 1 priority 110
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 7
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which transparent LAN service allows a service provider to offer Layer 2 Ethernet service to connect an enterprise in a
metro region?
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. PPP over MPLS
D. HDLC over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Why is R4 unable to install any ISIS routes in the routing table?
A. ISIS LSP has an authentication issue.
B. No DR has been elected on this segment.
C. The metric style is mismatched.
D. Circuit levels are different.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit, Which OSPFv3 redistribute configuration provides the equivalent results when redistributing from
EIGRP Pv6 onto OSPFv3 as it happens when redistributing from EIGRPv4 to OSPFv2?
A. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 redistribute connected
B. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 connected
C. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 include-connected
D. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two sets of configuration implements CBTS? (Choose two)
A. Create multiple MPLS TE from the same headend to the same tail-end
B. Assign a policy-map defining a CBWFQ on an MPLS TE tunnel
C. Create a master tunnel to which other tunnels can be members
D. Create two bandwidth pools a global pool and a pool
E. Create a PBR to use multiple MPLS TE tunnels according to the EXP value
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid
misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following IOS commands can detect whether the SQL slammer virus propagates in your networks?
A. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69 log
B. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434 log
C. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69
D. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UCS Manager account is the default user account, which cannot be deleted or modified?
A. admin
B. superuser
C. super user
D. root
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on the Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are
connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 10
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG

 

QUESTION 11
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of traffic is handled by the data plane?
A. packets destined for the device
B. control packets
C. transit packets
D. packets indirectly destined for the device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peer link 
B. vPC peer-keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
In the Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In the Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with a permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?
A. It restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. It is implemented only if no errors occur.
D. It is implemented and any errors are skipped.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_7rollback.htm

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q3

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to combine the advantages of a trunking F port and an F port channel.
Which command on a Cisco MDS switch should be used to enable this?
A. enable port-channel
B. feature trunking-fport
C. feature fport-channel-trunk
D. port-channel trunk
E. feature fport-trunk
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 6
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 9
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not recognized by the server.
What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
B. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
C. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
D. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the
following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is a symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q11

Which conditions can trigger on a Cisco Nexus device running FabricPath?
A. A switch connected to the Cisco Nexus device is running RSTP instead of STP.
B. A BPDU with bridge priority set to 61140 is received by the switch edge port.
C. The switch edge port in the STP domain is not configured as root.
D. VLAN is configured incorrectly on port-channel 100.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer\\’s representatives want to know
how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command
is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issue test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a
monitoring session?lead4pass 300-180 exam question q13

A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the default MAC address for the distributed gateway in the Cisco ACI Fabric is true?
A. There is no default MAC address.
B. A custom MAC address must be configured under each bridge domain.
C. The default MAC address is 00 11;BD:F9:88:0C.
D. The default MAC address is 00:22:BD:F8:19:FF.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?
A. It will always be the switches first and the APICs second.
B. It will always be the APICs first and the switches second.
C. It will always depend on the specifics of the software release.
D. It does not matter which you upgrade first (ARC/Switch) or second (APIC/Switch)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two actions occur when an EPG is being validated on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. IDs assignment validation
B. VLAN validation
C. path validation
D. BD, CTX configured validation
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about contract policy enforcement are true? (Choose two)
A. The class ID (or PCTag) of the source EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fsbric.
B. Contracts are always enforced m the ingress leaf
C. The class ID (or PCTag) of the destination EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fabric
D. Contracts are sometimes enforced in the ingress leaf and sometimes in the egress leaf.
E. Contracts are always enforced m the egress leaf
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two DMEs are running on a leaf switch? (Choose two.)
A. policy element
B. appliance director
C. spine manager
D. event manager
E. topology manager
F. policy manager
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 8
Which action is needed on a Cisco UCS to make ACI dynamic discovery work?
A. Enable VLAN grouping on the fabric interconnect uplinks.
B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Policy on the Cisco UCSM vNICs
C. Forward the infrastructure VLAN toward the ESX.
D. Use MTU 9000.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A VMM endpoint off of a UCSB is unable to hit its anycast gateway, but the MAC address of the VM can be seen in one
of the fabric interconnects Wh1Ch option is the cause of the issue?
A. The active NIC on the host has gone down and the host has not yet failed over.
B. There is no native VLAN configured within the data path of the Cisco UCS.
C. LLDP is not enabled in the vSwitch policies.
D. The VLAN tag is being changed at the vNIC or uplink port.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
At which point during VMM integration do you need to create the vDS switch within vCenter?
A. when starting up the VM
B. No need to create the vDS, the Cisco APIC controller does that automatically.
C. after assigning the EPG to the VMM controller
D. before defining the VLAN pool that is assigned to the VMM controller
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco UCS policy is required for VM endpoints to be discovered by the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. LAN connectivity policy
B. network control policy
C. dynamic vNIC connection policy
D. LACP policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for silent hosts to
communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using the proxy
because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP originator, so
it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP to the spine,
and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the entry remains
indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Which protocol runs between the vSmart controllers and between the vSmart controllers and the vEdge routers, and
unifies all control plane functions under a single: protocol umbrella1?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. IKE
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which Cisco products were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 20 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose Two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRF tunnel lo a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Winch two primary categories are displayed on the overall health page of the assurance component in the Cisco DNA
Center? (Choose two.)
A. Wired
B. Client
C. Access-Distribution
D. Server
E. Network
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies Q allocating resources
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 12
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF


QUESTION 13
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 14
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy based automated provisioning of network of fabric
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 15
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Try

Best Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Questions Free Download

Latest Cisco 700-038 pdf exam study materials are written according to the latest real 700-038 IT cert exams. All the practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/700-038.html  100% success and guarantee to pass 700-038 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of Cisco 700-038 exam several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Answer: A,C
700-038
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which sequence of Cisco 700-038 dumps steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco 700-038 vce Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Answer: C,D
700-038
QUESTION NO: 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Cisco 700-038 Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and
technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT
executives? (Choose two)A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural
design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational
business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the
customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose
two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the
associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach
outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and
business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s
organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM?
(Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a
specific industry. Where can you find resources that help you address verticals?
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market CiscoC. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 21
Which process makes use of the Cisco Installed Base Lifecycle Management (IBLM) initiative and
transformative network approach?
A. a high-level approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
B. a high-level approach in understanding the customer business model
C. a detailed approach in understanding the customer business model
D. a detailed approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which
of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
B. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. revenue streams
B. key partners
C. key resources
D. channelsE. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Retail businesses must act quickly in order to innovate, respond to changing market conditions, enhance
customer service, and increase sales. Which option addresses this requirement?
A. Cisco Lean Retail
B. Cisco Connected Retail
C. Cisco Employee Optimization
D. Cisco Customer Experience Transformation
E. Cisco Secure Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco Telepresence product series exemplifies simple-to-use immersive collaboration?
A. TX Series
B. MX Series
C. Profile Series
D. EX Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help lo build BOM faster”? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
B. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer’s business.
C. They help to verify any BOM that is created.
D. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which activity belongs to mapping business requirements to Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. developing the high-level and detailed customer designs
B. applying the requirement to the Cisco architecture reference model
C. identifying items from the architecture that would be used, such as switches and routers
D. building the customer design
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 600-455 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Mobile Agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. An additional voice gateway is required for Silent Monitoring.
B. They extend and connect.
C. They perform call control features (example: Hold/Conference/Transfer) only from the agent desktop.
D. They are limited only to PSTN phones and mobile phone; IP phones are not supported.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, which two Dialing Modes
apply to Transfer to IVR based campaigns? (Choose two.)
A. Preview dialing mode
B. Direct Preview dialing mode
C. Progressive dialing mode
D. Predictive dialing mode
E. Callback mode
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, in which order does the
Campaign Manager process perform record queries to send them to Dialer for dialing?
A. pending contacts, callbacks, retries
B. callbacks, retries, pending contacts
C. retries, callbacks, pending contacts
D. pending contacts, pending callbacks, pending retries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary
servers accept when HTTPS protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop?
(Choose two.)
A. digital certificate
B. certificate authority certificate
C. domain validation certificate
D. self-signed certificate
E. root certificate
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How does the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution encrypt the logger database?
A. AES
B. SHA
C. MD5
D. TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which option is needed from the primary and secondary servers for
certificate authority to generate a root, intermediate, and application certificate for Cisco Finesse?
A. fully qualified domain name of the servers
B. physical MAC address of the NIC card from the Cisco Finesse servers
C. Certificate Signing Request
D. IP address of server
E. system ID of the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When using microapps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified
Communications Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
For the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Outbound option, which Cisco Unified Communications Manager
feature can be used to disable ringback during transfer to agent for a scenario that involves SIP trunks?
A. replaces header script
B. normalization script
C. association script
D. transformation script
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which type of MTP is supported with Cisco Unified Mobile Agent?
A. MTP Pass-Through
B. MTP No Pass-Through
C. MTP Pass-Around
D. MTP No Pass-Around
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 600-455 exam question

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), when agents login into the desktop as a Mobile Agent, which number is used in
the highlighted Extension field?
A. the local CTI port dialed number
B. the remote CTI port dialed number
C. agent PSTN number (accessible from CUCM/GW)
D. agent ID
E. agent reservation script dialed number
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Extensions on the same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to
forward inbound ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with clustering over the WAN, which statement
about the Cisco Unified Communications Manager peripheral gateway duplex pair is true?
A. Each side of the peripheral gateway pair (side A and side B) must be configured to point to a local and
a remote CTI Manager across the WAN from the PG location.
B. The peripheral gateway private network may be shared with any other private connections– peripheralgateways or call routers/loggers.
C. The peripheral gateway may use the highly available WAN connection between the sites (visible
network) for all traffic–visible and private.
D. The peripheral gateways must be co-located at one side or the other of the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications
Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution?
A. Add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration.
B. Add a second TFTP server to the cluster.
C. Add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Group defined in device pool of the Cisco IP Phone.
D. Use an SRST reference in the device pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
To maintain end-to-end reporting context, when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group, to
which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred?
A. route pattern
B. agent IP phone
C. CTI route point
D. translation pattern
E. translation route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is designed with geographic redundancy for the central
controllers (with separate call routers and loggers).
If Call Router Side A has device majority and its Ethernet private network NIC fails, which two events
occur? (Choose two.)
A. The Call Router Side B stays active, while the Call Router Side A goes idle.
B. The Call Router Side A stays active, while Call Router Side B goes idle.
C. There is no ability to make ICM configuration changes.
D. Both sides go out of service for small period of time, Call Router Side A goes active, and Call Router
Side B goes idle.
E. The system operates as it did prior to failure.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which failure scenario in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution stops all processing and
routing of contact center calls?
A. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
B. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
C. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
D. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
E. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Call Router Side B fails.F. ICM Logger Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model are true? (Choose two.)
A. With Cisco Unified Computing System C-Series Servers, you must deploy dual SAN on each data
center.
B. The visible network that supports the communication between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
subscriber nodes must be highly available and designed with no single point of failure.
C. Agents at remote locations must be registered to only one data center for their Cisco Unified IP Phone
connections if they are using Cisco Finesse.
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise IVR Peripheral Gateway cannot be split between the data
center locations to maintain a local JTAPI connection for call control.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Peripheral Gateways that are split between the two data
centers can share the same private network connection as the central controller (router and logger)
components.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which three statements about QoS in a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management solution are true?
(Choose three.)
A. In a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management network, if the traffic is marked in the ICM, QoS trust
needs to be enabled on access-layer routers and switches.
B. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 90 percent of total available
bandwidth.
C. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 75 percent of total available
bandwidth.
D. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 65 percent of total available
bandwidth.
E. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is no longer necessary.
F. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is still necessary.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 19
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified
Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three system responses are valid if the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (centralized
deployment with remote branches) and the remote branch lose the public network connection to both of
the data centers? (Choose three.)
A. The local voice gateway detects the failure of the communications path. The voice gateway goes into
SRST mode to provide local dial-tone functionality.B. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then executes local bootstrap TCL script, answers the call, and forwards it
to the hunt group.
C. The active call that arrived at the local PSTN connection and was answered by agent at that site
remains active, however, the agent peripheral gateway loses access to the call and creates a TCD
record.
D. The Cisco Finesse server detects the loss of connectivity to the agent desktop and automatically signs
the agent out of the system.
E. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then connects to the communication manager cluster to provide local dial-
tone functionality.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 21
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small
agents branch provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few
agents.
B. It requires only limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS
lines for emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering
over the WAN deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence
time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is
pinned to a single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network
path as redundant link with QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500
ms convergence time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to
ensure latency and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms
convergence time.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23
Which two options are required for the private link in the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution?
(Choose two.)
A. path diversity
B. Layer 3 quality of service prioritization and queuing
C. max of 1500 ms round trip time latency tolerance
D. variable layer subnet masking
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on
separatedomains.
Which two requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform DNS lookup of the other server using fully
qualified domain name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP address.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using
the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25
Which option describes the impact of co-loading the Cisco Unified Outbound SIP Dialer on the same
servers as the agent peripheral gateway in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer does not reduce agent capacity on the peripheral gateway server.
B. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of four–each outbound port is
equivalent to four agents on the peripheral gateway.
C. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 1.33–each outbound port is
equivalent to 1.33 agents on the peripheral gateway.
D. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 15–each outbound port is
equivalent to 15 agents on the peripheral gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the
supervisors are located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The
customer requires that supervisors from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With
BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP streams are needed between the data center and
agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which four items are factors of bandwidth requirements for the visible network connection between the
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent Peripheral Gateway and the call router? (Choose four.)
A. busy hour call attempts
B. number of skill groups per agent
C. number of agents
D. number of call types
E. percent of traffic with Courtesy Callback
F. number of call and ECC variables
G. number of concurrent real-time reports
H. percent of traffic requires Agent Greeting
I. percent of traffic requires Whisper AnnouncementsCorrect Answer: ABCF

QUESTION 28
Which VMware feature is supported for use with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. VMware vMotion
B. VMware distributed vSwitch
C. VMware consolidated backup
D. VMware snapshots
E. vDisk thick provisioning
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which two statements about a Contact Center Enterprise solution in virtualized environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A. UCS B/C series NIC teaming is supported.
B. 10/100 NIC speeds are supported.
C. Gigabit Ethernet Auto Negotiation is optional for NIC and switch.
D. 802.1Q uplinks to VMware hosts must not be configured for host/edge spanning-tree forwarding.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 30
In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), which VM network adapter type removes the requirement to disable the LRO
feature on the VM host?
A. Vlance network adapter type
B. Flexible VM network adapter type
C. E1000 network adapter type
D. VMXNET network adapter type
E. VMXNET3 network adapter type
Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-ucced.html

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