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350-801 certification exam 2022-2023

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350-801 certification exam questions and answers

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Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)350-801350-801 dumps
Question 1:

Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description

C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

Question 2:

An engineer configures Cisco Unified Communications Manager to prevent toll fraud. At which two points does the engineering block the pattern in Cisco Unified CM to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. route pattern

B. route group

C. translation pattern

D. partition

E. CSS

Correct Answer: CE

Question 3:

Which open-standard protocol is the basis for the Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol?

A. JSON

B. SIP

C. XML

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:
350-801 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to Cisco Unified Communication Manager while outside of the office. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server.

B. The DNS record should be created for _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com.

C. The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com.

D. The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide_chapter_010.html

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly Which change should be made to resolve this issue?

350-801 dumps questions 5

A. codec g723ar63

B. codec g729br81

C. codec g726r32

D. codec g711ulaw

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.

B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.

C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.

D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two functions are provided by Cisco Expressway Series? (Choose two.)

A. interworking of SIP and H.323

B. endpoint registration

C. intercluster extension mobility

D. voice and video transcoding

E. voice and video conference

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-11/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2-4-with-Cisco-Expressway-Deployment-Guide_X8-11-4.pdf

Question 8:

How does an administrator make a Cisco IP phone display the last 10 digits of the calling number when the call is in the connected state, and also display the calling number in the E.164 format within call history on the phone?

A. Configure a translation pattern that has a Calling Party Transform Mask of XXXXXXXXXX.

B. On the inbound SIP trunk, change Significant Digits to 10.

C. Change the service parameter Apply Transformations On Remote Number to True.

D. Configure a calling party transformation pattern that keeps only the last 10 digits.

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 law with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports a packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating?

A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software

B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager

C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software

D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager

E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Expressway-C

C. Cisco UCM

D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-129_chapter_010000.html

Exam D

Question 11:

An administrator would like to set several Cisco Jabber configuration parameters to only apply to mobile clients (iOS and Android). How does the administrator accomplish this with Cisco Jabber 12.9 and Cisco UCM 12.5?

A. Assign the desired configuration file to “Mobile” Jabber Client Configuration in the Service Profile.

B. Deploy jabber-config-user.xml on iOS and Android devices.

C. Upload the jabber-config.enc file to TFTP

D. Create a user profile in Jabber Policies.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?

A. video conference bridge

B. auto-attendant

C. transcoder

D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/media.html

Question 13:

Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful?

350-801 dumps questions 13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which two steps should be taken to a provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users?

A. Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone with an end user.

B. Plug the phone into the network.

C. Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone with an end user.

D. Enter the settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound).

E. Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone with an end user.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

An engineer configures a Cisco Unified Border Element and must ensure that the codecs negotiated to meet the ITSP requirements. The ITSP supports G.711ulaw and G.729 for audio and H.264 for video. The preferred voice codec is G.711. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 100

B. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

C. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

D. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g729r8 codec preference 2 g711ulaw video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/cube/configuration/cube-book/cube-codec-basic.html


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[Update Dev 2022]Latest CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber ​​Security (CASP+)

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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

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Latest CAS-004 dumps Exam Questions and Answers Read Online

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)Lead4PassDec 05, 2022CAS-004 dumps
New Question 1:

Which of the following are risks associated with vendor lock-in? (Choose two.)

A. The client can seamlessly move data.

B. The vendor can change product offerings.

C. The client receives a sufficient level of service.

D. The client experiences decreased quality of service.

E. The client can leverage a multi-cloud approach.

F. The client experiences increased interoperability.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cloud/what-is-vendor-lock- in/#:~:text=Vendor%20lock%2Din%20can%20become,may%20involve%20reformatting%2 0the%20data

New Question 2:

A security analyst is concerned that a malicious piece of code was downloaded on a Linux system. After some research, the analyst determines that the suspected piece of code is performing a lot of input/output (I/O) on the disk drive.

new cas-004 dumps questions 2

Based on the output above, from which of the following process IDs can the analyst begin an investigation?

A. 65

B. 77

C. 83

D. 87

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

SIMULATION

An administrator wants to install a patch to an application.

INSTRUCTIONS

Given the scenario, download, verify, and install the patch in the most secure manner.

The last installation that is completed will be the final submission.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

new cas-004 dumps questions 3
new cas-004 dumps questions 3-1

Correct Answer: See the below.

In this case, the second link should be used (This may vary in the actual exam). The first link showed the following error so it should not be used.

new cas-004 dumps questions 3-2

Also, Two of the link choices used HTTP and not HTTPS as shown when hovering over the links as shown:

new cas-004 dumps questions 3-3

Since we need to do this in the most secure manner possible, they should not be used.

Finally, the second link was used and the MD5 utility of MD5sum should be used on the install.exe file as shown. Make sure that the hash matches.

new cas-004 dumps questions 3-4

Finally, type in install.exe to install it and make sure there are no signature verification errors.

New Question 4:

A security engineer thinks the development team has been hard-coding sensitive environment variables in its code. Which of the following would BEST secure the company\’s CI/CD pipeline?

A. Utilizing a trusted secrets manager

B. Performing DAST on a weekly basis

C. Introducing the use of container orchestration

D. Deploying instance tagging

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://about.gitlab.com/blog/2021/04/09/demystifying-ci-cd-variables/

New Question 5:

An enterprise is deploying APIs that utilize a private key and a public key to ensure the connection string is protected. To connect to the API, customers must use the private key. Which of the following would BEST secure the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string?

A. Implement a VPN for all APIs.

B. Sign the key with DSA.

C. Deploy MFA for the service accounts.

D. Utilize HMAC for the keys.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://eclipsesource.com/blogs/2016/07/06/keyed-hash-message-authentication-code-in-rest-apis/

New Question 6:

A company runs a well-tended, on-premises fitness club for its employees, about 200 of them each day. Employees want to sync the center\’s login and attendance program with their smartphones. Human resources, which manages the contract for the fitness center, has asked the security architecture to help draft security and privacy requirements.

Which of the following would BEST address these privacy concerns?

A. Use biometric authentication.

B. Utilize geolocation/geofencing.

C. Block unauthorized domain bridging.

D. Implement containerization

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

A systems administrator is preparing to run a vulnerability scan on a set of information systems in the organization. The systems administrator wants to ensure that the targeted systems produce accurate information, especially regarding configuration settings.

Which of the following scan types will provide the systems administrator with the MOST accurate information?

A. A passive, credentialed scan

B. A passive, non-credentialed scan

C. An active, non-credentialed scan

D. An active, credentialed scan

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 192.10.1.0/24 for the corporate site and 192.10.2.0/24 for the remote

site. The Telco router interface uses the 192.10.5.0/30 IP range.

Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A.

Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.

Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.

Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.

new cas-004 dumps questions 8

Hot Area:

new cas-004 dumps questions 8-1

Correct Answer:

new cas-004 dumps questions 8-2

We have the traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:

new cas-004 dumps questions 8-3

New Question 9:

A healthcare system recently suffered from a ransomware incident As a result the board of directors decided to hire a security consultant to improve existing network security. The security consultant found that the healthcare network was completely flat, had no privileged access limits and had open RDP access to servers with personal health information. As the consultant builds the remediation plan, which of the following solutions would BEST solve these challenges? (Select THREE).

A. SD-WAN

B. PAM

C. Remote access VPN

D. MFA

E. Network segmentation

F. BGP

G. NAC

Correct Answer: ACE

New Question 10:

A company is preparing to deploy a global service.

Which of the following must the company do to ensure GDPR compliance? (Choose two.)

A. Inform users regarding what data is stored.

B. Provide opt-in/out for marketing messages.

C. Provide data deletion capabilities.

D. Provide optional data encryption.

E. Grant data access to third parties.

F. Provide alternative authentication techniques.

Correct Answer: AC

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

1.

allow subject access

2.

have inaccuracies corrected

3.

have information erased

4.

prevent direct marketing

5.

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

6.

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above) https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

New Question 11:

A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use a client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.

Which of the following solutions does this describe?

A. Full tunneling

B. Asymmetric routing

C. SSH tunneling

D. Split tunneling

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

Ransomware encrypted the entire human resources files are for a large financial institution. Security operations personnel were unaware of the activity until it was too late to stop it. The restoration will take approximately four hours, and the last backup occurred 48 hours ago. The management team has indicated that the RPO for a disaster recovery event for this data classification is 24 hours.

Based on RPO requirements, which of the following recommendations should the management team make?

A. Leave the current backup schedule intact and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.

B. Leave the current backup schedule intact and make the human resources files read-only.

C. Increase the frequency of backups and create SIEM alerts for IOCs.

D. Decrease the frequency of backups and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

A company\’s internet connection is commonly saturated during business hours, affecting internet availability. The company requires all Internet traffic to be business related After analyzing the traffic over a period of a few hours, the security administrator observes the following:

new cas-004 dumps questions 13

The majority of the IP addresses associated with the TCP/SSL traffic resolve to CDNs

Which of the following should the administrator recommend for the CDN traffic to meet the corporate security requirements?

A. Block outbound SSL traffic to prevent data exfiltration.

B. Confirm the use of the CDN by monitoring NetFlow data.

C. Further investigate the traffic using a sanctioned MITM proxy.

D. Implement an IPS to drop packets associated with the CDN.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned the system that manages retail sales and moved it to a cloud service provider. The new infrastructure did not meet the company\’s availability requirements. During a postmortem analysis, the following issues were highlighted:

1.

International users reported latency when images on the web page were initially loading.

2.

During times of report processing, users reported issues with inventory when attempting to place orders.

3.

Despite the fact that ten new API servers were added, the load across servers was heavy at peak times.

Which of the following infrastructure design changes would be BEST for the organization to implement to avoid these issues in the future?

A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.

B. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.

C. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions and dynamically create API servers based on load.

D. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

A penetration tester obtained root access on a Windows server and, according to the rules of engagement, is permitted to perform post-exploitation for persistence. Which of the following techniques would BEST support this?

A. Configuring system services to run automatically at startup

B. Creating a backdoor

C. Exploiting an arbitrary code execution exploit

D. Moving laterally to a more authoritative server/service

Correct Answer: B


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New update Lead4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF and VCE|200-901 DEVASC Exam

New updated Lead4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF file and VCE practice exam engine to help pass the 200-901 DEVASC Exam successfully!

Lead4Pass 200-901 exam dumps contain 294 exam questions and answers, covering complete DevNet Associate 200-901 DEVASC certification exam questions, and verified to be true and valid, check here to get the latest Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html (PDF+VCE).

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Also, read the latest 10 Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 24, 2022[Updated July 5, 2022] 200-901 dumps questions
New Question 1:

Which platform is run directly on top of a hypervisor?

A. bare metal systems

B. virtual machines

C. containers

D. applications

Correct Answer: B


New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer has developed a script to automate the gathering of information by providing the email address of the individual. When the engineer tests the script, a 401 error is received. Which command fixes the script?

new 200-901 dumps questions 2

A. Add “Authorization”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

B. Add “Authentication”: “Basic ” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

C. Add “:@” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

D. Add “Authentication”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. While developing a Cisco Webex bot, an application reaches the public IP address of the firewall, but traffic is forwarded to the IP address of server 1 instead of the IP address of server 2. What causes this issue?

new 200-901 dumps questions 3

A. The proxy server that rewrites traffic is misconfigured.

B. The router is sending the traffic to server 1 instead of server 2.

C. The switch is forwarding IP traffic to the wrong VLAN.

D. NAT is misconfigured on the firewall.

Correct Answer: D


New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 4

A network engineer must collect information from the network. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Cisco Meraki API.

The script must run over nested loops to collect organization and network information and uses the collected data for final collection.

Which process is being automated by using the Python script?

A. Gather the IDs of the ACME organization, the BLDG21 network, and the dents on the network

B. Provide the BLDG21 network information if it is part of the ACME organization

C. Collect the IDs of the clients on the BLDG21 network

D. List the IDs from the ACME organization

Correct Answer: A


New Question 5:

What are the two principles of infrastructure as a code environment? (Choose two.)

A. Components are coupled, and definitions must be deployed for the environment to function.

B. Redeployments cause varying environmental definitions.

C. Environments must be provisioned consistently using the same inputs.

D. Service overlap is encouraged to cater to unique environmental needs.

E. Complete complex systems must be able to be built from reusable infrastructure definitions.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 6:

Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?

A. Webex Teams

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Finesse Gadgets

D. Webex Devices

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 7

Drag and Drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing on the Meraki Python script to create a new network.

Select and Place:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-1

Correct Answer:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-2
new 200-901 dumps questions 7-3

New Question 8:

Access to the management interface of devices must be restricted by using SSH and HTTPS.

Which two ports must be included in the ACLs for the protocols to work? (Choose two.)

A. 22

B. 23

C. 80

D. 443

E. 880

Correct Answer: AD


New Question 9:

What are the two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)

A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration

B. configuration on devices becomes less complex

C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP

D. reduction in network changes performed manually

E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes

Correct Answer: DE


New Question 10:

What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)

A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application

B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities

C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires

D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses

E. allows for the separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host

Correct Answer: AB


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[Update Nov 2022] CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBROPS EXAM MATERIAL

CyberOps Associate 200-201 Dumps is the Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam material for launching your career in cybersecurity operations.

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CyberOps Associate exam FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 200-201 CBROPS: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)
Certification: CyberOps Associate
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 95-105 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
200-201 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-201.html (CyberOps Associate exam dumps maps to Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam objectives)
200-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 264 Q&A
Last update time: Nov 02, 2022

Is CyberOps Associate certification worth it?

The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate is regarded by many as a great starting point for cyber security professionals. For instance, it offers enough entry-level fundamental concepts such as cryptography and Security Operations Center (SOC) basics. One of the best things about this cert is the fact that it doesn’t have any prerequisites.

For someone looking to break into cybersecurity, the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate makes sense. It covers key concepts around Cisco hardware and software, but not in too much detail. Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate also teaches you about security operations and is a good way to land a junior analyst role in a SOC.

–source: https://www.cbtnuggets.com/blog/certifications/cisco/new-cisco-certs-ccna-cyberops-vs-ccnp-security

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time[Free share] Update Nov 2022
15Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)Lead4passOct 04, 2022200-201 exam questions 16-28
New Question 1:

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

A. ransomware communicating after infection

B. users downloading copyrighted content

C. data exfiltration

D. user circumvention of the firewall

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q2

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

A. Base64 encoding

B. TLS encryption

C. SHA-256 hashing

D. ROT13 encryption

Correct Answer: B

ROT13 is considered weak encryption and is not used with TLS (HTTPS:443). Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT13


New Question 3:

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

A. sandbox

B. application allows list

C. application block list

D. host-based firewall

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/sandbox#:~:text=Sandboxes%20can%20be%20used%20to,be%20run%20inside%20a%20sandbox


New Question 4:

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of attack.

B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

Correct Answer: B


New Question 5:

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 6:

A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?

A. weaponization

B. delivery

C. exploitation

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence.

C. Tampered images are used as evidence.

D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Correct Answer: D

The disk image must be intact for forensics analysis. As a cybersecurity professional, you may be given the task of capturing an image of a disk in a forensic manner. Imagine a security incident has occurred on a system and you are required to perform some forensic investigation to determine who and what caused the attack. Additionally, you want to ensure the data that was captured is not tampered with or modified during the creation of a disk image process. Ref: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide


New Question 8:

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 9:

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data availability

B. data normalization

C. data signature

D. data protection

Correct Answer: B


New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q10

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

A. Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B. Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C. Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D. Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Correct Answer: D


New Question 11:

What is the function of a command and control server?

A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware

C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise

D. It sends instructions to a compromised system

Correct Answer: D


New Question 12:

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

A. internet

B. transport

C. application

D. data link

Correct Answer: C

A deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection\’s application layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.


New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q13

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q14

What is occurring?

A. Cross-Site Scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack

C. Insecure Deserialization

D. Regular GET requests

Correct Answer: B


New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q15

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)Lead4PassUpdated on: Sep 21, 2022Aug 28, 2022
New Question 1:

Which three customer business objectives do Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)

A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management

B. Visibility and control with a managed environment

C. Accelerated firewall implementation

D. Complete protection with holistic defense

E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions

F. Secure communications with advanced access

Correct Answer: BDE

New Question 2:

What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)

A. Malware clustering

B. Threat-based anomaly detection

C. Netflow monitoring

D. Data Loss Prevention

E. Realtime sandboxing

F. Forensic investigation

Correct Answer: BCF

New Question 3:

What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose Two) A. Unresponsive potential customers

B. Seller competition

C. Fragmented solutions

D. Complexity of solution components

E. Overcrowded portfolios

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 4:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)

A. Email

B. Mobile

C. Voicemail

D. Data Center

E. Web

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 70

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose Two)

A. advanced analytics

B. reputation analytics

C. intrusion analysis

D. dynamic URL filtering

E. dynamic data analysis

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 7:

What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?

A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources

B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence

C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources

D. Context, telemetry and intelligence sources

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers realtime access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)

A. pxGrid

B. Cisco Security Connector

C. Duo

D. Stealthwatch

E. AMP for Endpoints

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 10:

Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)

A. Industrial Network Director

B. Duo

C. Cisco Security Connector

D. Advanced Malware Protection

E. Identity Services Engine

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 11:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

Which two products are involved in granting safe access to apps? (Choose Two)

A. TrustSec

B. ISE

C. SD-Access

D. Duo

E. ACI

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 13:

Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?

A. Context-aware access

B. Centralized policy management

C. Platform exchange grid

D. Device profiling

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.

B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.

C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.

D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)

A. Threat Defense

B. Intrusion Analytics

C. Threat Analytics

D. Network Analytics

E. NGFW

F. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: CDF

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Number of exam questionsUpdate timeExam nameMore related
15Sep 14, 2022Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure – Advanced (DCACIA) (300-630)Cisco CCNP Exam Dumps (PDF+VCE)
Question 1:
300-630 dumps questions 1

Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?

A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.

B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.

C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.

D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?

A. ECMP

B. TCP optimization

C. disabled fragmentation

D. jumbo frames

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtual-extensible-lan-and-ethernet-virt.html

Question 3:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

Question 4:
300-630 dumps questions 4

An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?

A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control

C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode

D. Disable Remote EP Learn

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

Question 6:

What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?

A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.

D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:
300-630 dumps questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)

A. Select a common vPC interface policy group

B. Select individual interface profiles

C. Select common interface profiles

D. Select individual switch profiles

E. Select common switch profiles

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 8:
300-630 dumps questions 8

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?

A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP

B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic

C. contract with no filter

D. permit-all contract filter

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:
300-630 dumps questions 9

Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?

300-630 dumps questions 9-1
300-630 dumps questions 9-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010.html

Question 10:
300-630 dumps questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?

A. global

B. VRF

C. application

D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?

A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:
300-630 dumps questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)

A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs

B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope

C. Change the contract scope to Tenant

D. Change the subject scope to VRF

E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.

B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.

C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.

D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.

E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/basic-configuration/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x_chapter_0110.html

Question 14:
300-630 dumps questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

Question 15:
300-630 dumps questions 15

Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

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New Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express

B. Cisco 8540

C. Cisco 3504

D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

New Question 5:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

What switching product should you lead with for a midmarket customer?

A. Catalyst C9200

B. Catalyst SG 550xG

C. SG250X

D. C2960L

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard

B. remote wipe any device on the network

C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth

D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Which is a SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Correct Answer: C

New Question 11:

What is one challenge commonly facing Express Specialization Networking customers?

A. shrinking IT budget and resource scarcity

B. low number of devices connected to the network

C. do-it-yourself approach to network management

D. large, highly bureaucratic IT departments

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is one way that Mx security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability?

A. Always on (availability groups)

B. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)

C. Warm spare (using VRRP)

D. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default

B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers

C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support

D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

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Citrix 1Y0-341 dumps: serves all 1Y0-341 CCP-N exam candidates

The newly updated Citrix 1Y0-341 dumps contains 107 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 1Y0-341 dumps PDF and 1Y0-341 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 1Y0-341 CCP-N exam.

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New Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 5:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/setting-up/ configuring- role-based-access-control.html

New Question 6:

A Citrix Engineer wants the Citrix Web App Firewall to respond with a page stored on the Citrix ADC when a violation is detected.

Which profile setting accomplishes this?

A. Redirect URL

B. RFC Profile

C. Default Request

D. HTML Error Object

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX140293

New Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has a pair of Citrix ADC VPX appliances configured as a High- Availability (HA) pair and hosted on a Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer wants to use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor and manage the 35 web applications on the appliances. The engineer has imported Citrix ADM virtual appliance to Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer has also configured the management IP address settings and has added 35 instances. However, some of the instances are NOT reporting any data.

Which two areas can the engineer check to determine the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A Premium platform license must be configured on each instance.

B. AppFlow must be enabled on each instance.

C. The Citrix ADM license must be installed.

D. An SSL certificate must be installed on the Citrix ADM appliance.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

In which order is a client request to a protected web application processed?

A. CitrixWebApp Firewall, Load Balancing, Caching, Rewrite

B. Caching, Citrix Web App Firewall, Load Balancing, Rewrite

C. Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Load Balancing, Rewrite

D. Load Balancing, Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Rewrite

Correct Answer: C

New Question 10:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Analytics page allows an engineer to monitor the metrics of end-point analysis and authentication failures?

A. Gateway Insight

B. HDX Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Security Insight

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer creates a Responder policy to redirect users attempting to access an application protected by Citrix Web App Firewall. Instead of being redirected, users are seeing an `Access Denied\’ page.

This is happening because Citrix Web App Firewall is processed. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. before Responder, and the redirection is invalid

B. after Responder, but the violation is applied to prevent access

C. before Responder, and a violation is occurring

D. after Responder, and the redirection is invalid

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is reviewing the Citrix Web App Firewall log files using the GUI. Upon further analysis, the engineer notices that legitimate application traffic is being blocked.

What can the engineer do to allow the traffic to pass through while maintaining security?

A. Note the protection blocking the traffic in the log entry. Edit the profile and deselect the Block action for protection.

B. Select the check box in the log entry. Choose to Dismiss to allow the traffic to pass through from the Action menu.

C. Note the protection blocking the traffic in the log entry. Create a new profile and policy and bind it with a larger priority number.

D. Select the check box in the log entry. Choose Edit and Deploy to create a relaxation rule from the Action menu.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is monitoring the environment with Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM). Management has asked for a report of high-risk traffic to protected internal websites.

Which dashboard can the engineer use to generate the requested report?

A. App Security

B. Transactions

C. Users and Endpoints

D. App

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has configured Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor applications presented by Citrix ADC appliances. When reviewing the App Security Dashboard, the engineer finds no data.

What must the engineer do to ensure data is being collected from the applications?

A. Enable AppFlow for Security Insight on the instances in Citrix ADM.

B. Update the password stored in the instance profile on Citrix ADM.

C. Point the default route on Citrix ADM to the subnet with the NSIPs of the Citrix ADC appliances.

D. Enable the Web App Firewall feature on the Citrix ADC appliances.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configured signature protections for Citrix Web App Firewall. Signature Auto-Update has been enabled. Upon reviewing the log files, the engineer notices that the auto-update process has an error. In the settings for Signature Auto Update, the engineer notices that the URL is blank.

Which URL should the engineer enter to restore the update process?

A. https://s3.amazonaws.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

B. https://download.citrix.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

C. https://www.citrix.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

D. https://citrix.azure.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX138858

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Cisco 300-920 dumps: serves all 300-920 DEVWBX exam candidates

The newly updated Cisco 300-920 dumps contain 60 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 300-920 dumps PDF and 300-920 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 300-920 DEVWBX exam.

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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user.

Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for HTTP request that sets up a personal metting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 3:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.

B. The credential was expired.

C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.

D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has capital letters and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t checks that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, WebEx meetings XML API service has processed the request.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. A webhook has been created so that an application is notified when users mention a bot in a Webex Teams space. The exhibit shows an example of a notification received by the application. Which code snippet correctly processes the JSON payload using the Webex Node.js SDK in order to print out messages that mention the bot?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Which xAPI access mechanism requires separate connections for commands and notifications?

A. Serial

B. WebSocket

C. HTTP/HTTPS

D. SSH

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 9:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.

B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.

C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.

D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.

E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 10:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\’s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\’ scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created from a public authority

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which Webex Teams REST API request has generated the response body in the exhibit?

A. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=lastactivity

B. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=created

C. GET/v1/rooms?max=1

D. GET/v1/spaces?orderBy=lastActivity

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. When using the Webex Browser SDK to create calls and share screens, which two statements are valid given a `webex\’ object such as displayed in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. After a meeting is joined, it cannot be left programmatically until the host ends the meeting.

B. The webex meetings.register() function must be invoked before attempting to join any meeting.

C. The joinMeeting() function throws an error of type `media stopped\’ if a media stream is stopped.

D. Given a Webex meeting number the webex meetings join() function can be used to join the meeting.

E. The mediaSettings for a joined meeting accepts boolean attributes to send and receive audio, video, and screen share.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing.

Which HTTP header is expected in this response?

A. Push

B. Link

C. Patch

D. Put

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms.

Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.

Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?

Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?

A. shared tree

B. MDT default

C. source tree

D. MDT voice

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?

A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.

B. The two routers have the same area ID.

C. The two routers have the same network ID.

D. The two routers have different IS-types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.

B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds

C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds

D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.

Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?

A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command

B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route

C. Filter the routes on the receiving router

D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.

Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?

A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets

B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?

A. shortest path calculated by IGP

B. dynamic rules

C. path policy

D. explicit maps

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?

A. The two devices have different process IDs

B. The two devices have different network types

C. The two devices have different router IDs

D. The two devices have the same area ID

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

A. type 3 LSA

B. type 4 LSA

C. type 1 LSA

D. type 2 LSA

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?

A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally

B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process

C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process

D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?

A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path

B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis

C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path

D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network

Correct Answer: C

……

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