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QUESTION 1
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS
ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type
must be selected?
A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4
What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?
A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.
B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby
mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number
into a localized format?
A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7
An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?
A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?
A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled disconnect a multiparty call when
the call initiator hangs up?
A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two
messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PRACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is
necessary to enable MGCP?
A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

 

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

 

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

 

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

 

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-535 exam dumps, 300-535 exam questions and answers! 300-535 pdf, 300-535 exam video!
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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROPlead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

 

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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