Cisco CCNP Security Core Exam Solution | Lead4Pass 350-701 dumps

350-701 exam

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Question 1:

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

A. phishing

B. slow loris

C. pharming

D. SYN flood

Question 2:

An administrator is configuring N IP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname

Question 3:

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A. Cisco FTD

B. Cisco AnyConnect

C. Cisco CTA

D. Cisco ASA threat-analytics/at-a-glance-c45-736555.pdf

Question 4:
350-701 exam questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with

A. imports requests

B. HTTP authorization

C. HTTP authentication

D. plays dent ID

Question 5:

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A. Mail Submission Agent

B. Mail Transfer Agent

C. Mail Delivery Agent

D. Mail User Agent EmailSecurityUsingCiscoESADeploymentGuide-Feb2013.pdf

Question 6:

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A. HTTPS file upload site

B. Microsoft Windows network shares

C. SQL database injections

D. encrypted SMTP

Question 7:

What is a description of micro-segmentation?

A. Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B. Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C. Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D. Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question 8:

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Select and Place:

350-701 exam questions 8

Correct Answer:

350-701 exam questions 8-1

Question 9:

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

A. transparent user identification

B. SOCKS proxy services

C. web usage controls

D. user session restrictions

Question 10:

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A. intent-based APIs

B. automation adapters

C. domain integration

D. application adapters

Question 11:

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A. Malware installation

B. Command-and-control communication

C. Network footprinting

D. Data exfiltration


Question 12:

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. virus

B. NTP amplification

C. ping of death

D. HTTP flood

Question 13:

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into DNAC with the native API?

A. lastSyncTime and paid

B. POST and name

C. userSudiSerialNos and devicelnfo

D. GET and serialNumber

To add a device to Cisco DNA Center with the native API, the API method used is POST which creates a new resource. One of the required attributes to add a device is the “name” attribute, which is used to specify the name of the device being added. The device name should be unique and it\’s used to identify the device within the Cisco DNA Center platform.

A GET request is used to retrieve information from a resource. “SerialNumber” and “userSudiSerialNos” are attributes used to identify a device but they are not required to add a device to Cisco DNA Center, they are needed to retrieve specific device information. “lastSyncTime” is an attribute used to indicate when the device last synced with Cisco DNA Center, it\’s not required to add a device. “pid” is an attribute used to identify a device\’s product ID, and it\’s not required to add a device.

Question 14:

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A. flow-export event-type

B. policy-map

C. access-list

D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E. access-group

Question 15:


Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

Select and Place:

350-701 exam questions 15

Correct Answer:

350-701 exam answers 15

Verify answer:



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Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B

What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD

Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD

Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
Correct Answer: D

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