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Braindump4it shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam “Identity with Windows Server 2016”
https://www.lead4pass.com/70-742.html (276 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 70-742 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-742.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
  • Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
  • Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
  • Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
  • Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).

Candidates should also be familiar implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.

Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You deploy a new Active Directory forest. 

You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.

Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each member server. Does this

meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named

Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. 

Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server

retrieves data from Server2. 

You create a domain user account named User1. 

You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP. 

Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. 

Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Computers container.
B. Run the redircmp.exe command.
C. Modify the Security settings of the technician\\’s user account.
D. Add the technician to the Windows Authorization Access group.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active
Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains three domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q4

The company physically relocates Server2 from the Montreal office to the Seattle office.
You discover that both Server1 and Server2 authenticate users who sign in to the client computers in the Montreal
office. Only Server3 authenticates users who sign in to the computers in the Seattle office.
You need to ensure that Server2 authenticates the users in the Seattle office during normal network operations.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADReplicationSite cmdlet.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Location Property of Server2.
C. From Network Connections on Server2, modify the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) configuration.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADDirectoryServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy a new Active Directory forest.
You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.
Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each domain controller.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company implements Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You confirm that the company meets all the prerequisites for using Microsoft Azure Multi- Factor Authentication (MFA)
and AD FS.
You need to ensure that you can select MFA as the primary authentication method for AD FS.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an enterprise certification
authority (CA).
A user named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You need to ensure that you can archive keys on the CA. The solution must use Admin1 as a key recovery agent.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7-1

http://markgossa.blogspot.com/2017/03/enable-key-archival-in-server-2012-r2.html

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain has a password policy that requires
at least seven characters.
You create an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. and then run the following commands.
redirusr OU=OU1.DC-Adatum,DC=com
New-ADUser User1
You need to identity the state of User1.
What should you identify?
A. User1 is created in OUT, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
B. User1 is created in the Users container, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
C. User1 is created in the Users container, is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
D. User1 is created in 0U1. is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-1

Box 1: Pass-through
Box 2: Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
Box 3: Pass-through
The following table describes the Exchange services that you can publish through Web Application Proxy and the
supported preauthentication for these services:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-2

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn528827(v=ws.11).aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Your company has an office in Montreal. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named Montreal that contains all of the users accounts for the users in the
Montreal office. An office manager in the Montreal office knows each user personally.
You need to ensure that the office manager can provide the users with a new password if the users forget their
password.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Montreal OU. Assign the office manager the Apply
Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO.
B. From the Security settings of each user account in the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Change
Password permission.
C. From the Security settings of the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Reset Password permission.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the OU of the domain. Filter the GPO to the Montreal users.
Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of
the GPO.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -ADuser User1 -UserPrincipalName [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Your network is isolated from the Internet. The network contains computers that are members of a domain and
computers that are members of a workgroup. All the computers are configured to use internal DNS servers and WINS
servers for name resolution.
The domain has a certification authority (CA). You run the Get-CACrlDistributionPoint cmdlet and receive the output as
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 desktop computers
and 500 laptops. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the computer accounts for the desktop computers
and
the laptops.
You create a Windows PowerShell script named Script1.ps1 that removes temporary files and cookies. You create a
Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to run the script once weekly only on the laptops.
What should you do?
A. In GPO1, create a File preference that uses item-level targeting.
B. In GPO1, create a Scheduled Tasks preference that uses item-level targeting.
C. In GPO1, configure the File System security policy. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. In GPO1, add Script1.ps1 as a startup script. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature allows an MPLS TE tunnel to be used by an IGP at the headend of the tunnel ?
A. MPLS TE Forwarding Adjacency
B. Generalized MPLS
C. Different Services traffic Engineering
D. MPLS TE link management
E. MPLS TE autoroute announce
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2

The exhibit illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between MPLS VPN inter-AS. The exhibit also
shows ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses. Which command is needed to change the next-hop address when
ASBR2 is not configured?
A. Redistribute command with the BGP routing process
B. Redistribute command with connected
C. Redistribute command with the IGP routing process
D. Redistribute command with static
Correct Answer: B
Figure 11-3 illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between autonomous systems. The only
difference is that ASBR2 is configured with the redistribute connected command, which propagates the host routes to all
PEs. The redistribute connected command is necessary because ASBR2 is not the configured to change the next hop
address.

lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2-1

Figure 11-3 Host Routes Propagated to All PEs Between Two Autonomous Systems
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/4.0/mpls/user/guide/11_isc.html

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and
that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three MPLS Traffic-eng DS-TE models are defined by IETF standard? (Choose three)
A. GRDM
B. MAR
C. MAM
D. RDM
E. G-BAM
F. A-RDM
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Assume two routers on the same subnet, R1 and R2, both configured for HSRP. R1 has a priority of 120. Which of the
following HSRP interface configurations will always result in the R2 becoming the primary? (Choose two.)
A. standby 1 priority 120
B. standby 1 priority 130 preempt
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 priority 120 preempt
E. standby 1 priority 110 preempt
F. standby 1 priority 110
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 7
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which transparent LAN service allows a service provider to offer Layer 2 Ethernet service to connect an enterprise in a
metro region?
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. PPP over MPLS
D. HDLC over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Why is R4 unable to install any ISIS routes in the routing table?
A. ISIS LSP has an authentication issue.
B. No DR has been elected on this segment.
C. The metric style is mismatched.
D. Circuit levels are different.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit, Which OSPFv3 redistribute configuration provides the equivalent results when redistributing from
EIGRP Pv6 onto OSPFv3 as it happens when redistributing from EIGRPv4 to OSPFv2?
A. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 redistribute connected
B. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 connected
C. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 include-connected
D. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two sets of configuration implements CBTS? (Choose two)
A. Create multiple MPLS TE from the same headend to the same tail-end
B. Assign a policy-map defining a CBWFQ on an MPLS TE tunnel
C. Create a master tunnel to which other tunnels can be members
D. Create two bandwidth pools a global pool and a pool
E. Create a PBR to use multiple MPLS TE tunnels according to the EXP value
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid
misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following IOS commands can detect whether the SQL slammer virus propagates in your networks?
A. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69 log
B. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434 log
C. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69
D. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UCS Manager account is the default user account, which cannot be deleted or modified?
A. admin
B. superuser
C. super user
D. root
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on the Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are
connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 10
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG

 

QUESTION 11
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of traffic is handled by the data plane?
A. packets destined for the device
B. control packets
C. transit packets
D. packets indirectly destined for the device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peer link 
B. vPC peer-keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
In the Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In the Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with a permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?
A. It restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. It is implemented only if no errors occur.
D. It is implemented and any errors are skipped.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_7rollback.htm

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q3

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to combine the advantages of a trunking F port and an F port channel.
Which command on a Cisco MDS switch should be used to enable this?
A. enable port-channel
B. feature trunking-fport
C. feature fport-channel-trunk
D. port-channel trunk
E. feature fport-trunk
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 6
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 9
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not recognized by the server.
What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
B. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
C. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
D. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the
following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is a symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q11

Which conditions can trigger on a Cisco Nexus device running FabricPath?
A. A switch connected to the Cisco Nexus device is running RSTP instead of STP.
B. A BPDU with bridge priority set to 61140 is received by the switch edge port.
C. The switch edge port in the STP domain is not configured as root.
D. VLAN is configured incorrectly on port-channel 100.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer\\’s representatives want to know
how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command
is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issue test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a
monitoring session?lead4pass 300-180 exam question q13

A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Cisco Channel Partner Program 500-601 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the default MAC address for the distributed gateway in the Cisco ACI Fabric is true?
A. There is no default MAC address.
B. A custom MAC address must be configured under each bridge domain.
C. The default MAC address is 00 11;BD:F9:88:0C.
D. The default MAC address is 00:22:BD:F8:19:FF.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?
A. It will always be the switches first and the APICs second.
B. It will always be the APICs first and the switches second.
C. It will always depend on the specifics of the software release.
D. It does not matter which you upgrade first (ARC/Switch) or second (APIC/Switch)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two actions occur when an EPG is being validated on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. IDs assignment validation
B. VLAN validation
C. path validation
D. BD, CTX configured validation
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about contract policy enforcement are true? (Choose two)
A. The class ID (or PCTag) of the source EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fsbric.
B. Contracts are always enforced m the ingress leaf
C. The class ID (or PCTag) of the destination EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fabric
D. Contracts are sometimes enforced in the ingress leaf and sometimes in the egress leaf.
E. Contracts are always enforced m the egress leaf
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two DMEs are running on a leaf switch? (Choose two.)
A. policy element
B. appliance director
C. spine manager
D. event manager
E. topology manager
F. policy manager
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 8
Which action is needed on a Cisco UCS to make ACI dynamic discovery work?
A. Enable VLAN grouping on the fabric interconnect uplinks.
B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Policy on the Cisco UCSM vNICs
C. Forward the infrastructure VLAN toward the ESX.
D. Use MTU 9000.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A VMM endpoint off of a UCSB is unable to hit its anycast gateway, but the MAC address of the VM can be seen in one
of the fabric interconnects Wh1Ch option is the cause of the issue?
A. The active NIC on the host has gone down and the host has not yet failed over.
B. There is no native VLAN configured within the data path of the Cisco UCS.
C. LLDP is not enabled in the vSwitch policies.
D. The VLAN tag is being changed at the vNIC or uplink port.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
At which point during VMM integration do you need to create the vDS switch within vCenter?
A. when starting up the VM
B. No need to create the vDS, the Cisco APIC controller does that automatically.
C. after assigning the EPG to the VMM controller
D. before defining the VLAN pool that is assigned to the VMM controller
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco UCS policy is required for VM endpoints to be discovered by the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. LAN connectivity policy
B. network control policy
C. dynamic vNIC connection policy
D. LACP policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for silent hosts to
communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using the proxy
because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP originator, so
it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP to the spine,
and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the entry remains
indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE

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Latest effective Cisco Field Engineer 500-490 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol runs between the vSmart controllers and between the vSmart controllers and the vEdge routers, and
unifies all control plane functions under a single: protocol umbrella1?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. IKE
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which Cisco products were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 20 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose Two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRF tunnel lo a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Winch two primary categories are displayed on the overall health page of the assurance component in the Cisco DNA
Center? (Choose two.)
A. Wired
B. Client
C. Access-Distribution
D. Server
E. Network
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies Q allocating resources
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 12
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF


QUESTION 13
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 14
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy based automated provisioning of network of fabric
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 15
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the function of the tricuspid valve?
A. It acts as a pacemaker.
B. To pump blood through the heart.
C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.
D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?
A. Myofibril
B. Sarcomere
C. Myosin
D. Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B
010-111 exam
QUESTION 4                 010-111 exam
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?
A. Greater flexibility of the soleus
B. Lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus
C. Lesser force of action of the knee extensors
D. Lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What two muscles, along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, make up the rotator cuff?
A. Teres minor and scalenus
B. Teres minor and subscapularis
C. Teres major and scalenus
D. Teres major and subscapularis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?
A. Kyphotic curve
B. Scoliotic curve
C. Lordotic curve
D. Myotic curve
Correct Answer: C

010-111 exam QUESTION 12
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.
B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Adenosine triphosphate production via andquot;anaerobicandquot; glycolysis is associated with the significant formation
of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Who should obtain a physician\’s clearance before starting an exercise program?
A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program.
B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise.
C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise.
D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by
concentric action of the same muscle?
A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
B. Plyometrics
C. Dynamic Activity Preparation
D. Progression
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?
A. Perform less-intensively than normal
B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
If a food product had 250 kilocalories per serving, a recommended serving size of 5 ounces, and contained 10 servings
per container, how many kilocalories would one consume if s/he ate ?of the container?
A. 625
B. 937
C. 2500 D. 3125
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When reading the label on a new andquot;energyandquot; bar, you notice that the bar is andquot;sweetened with
fructoseandquot;. Based on this label, which of the following conclusions can you make about this product?
A. The bar is sweetened with a disaccharide.
B. Fructose in this bar would give it a high glycemic index.
C. The bar is sweetened with a monosaccharide.
D. Fructose is a type of organic micronutrient.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Cardiac output is a product of heart rate multiplied by ___________.
A. peripheral resistance.
B. blood pressure.
C. blood volume.
D. stroke volume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What action is involved in the concentric phase of the biceps curl?
A. Flexion at the elbow.
B. Extension at the elbow.
C. Pronation of the forearm.
D. Supination of the forearm.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A routine pattern of adhering to and documenting compliance with fitness industry guidelines is often an effective guard
against ________.
A. Breach of contract
B. Malfeasance
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
As the percentage of 1 RM (Repetition Maximum) resistance increases:
A. the amount of rest you should allow between training days should increase.
B. the number of sets performed should increase.
C. the number of repetitions until fatigue decreases.
D. the amount of rest you should allow between sets should decrease.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
An individual participates regularly in his workplace fitness program because he earns a discount on his health
insurance premium for doing so. For this individual, the discount is an example of ________ .
A. Relapse prevention
B. Intrinsic motivation
C. Self-monitoring. D. Extrinsic motivation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases
slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in
intensity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client\’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a
resistance training repetition?
A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate
C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure
D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises?
A. Circuit training
B. Interval training
C. Split routine training
D. Periodization training
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press?
A. Only after the movement ends.
B. Immediately before the movement begins.
C. During the eccentric phase of the movement.
D. During the concentric phase of the movement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery
disease?
A. Advanced age, gender, family history
B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus
C. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia
D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately what
percentage of his/her total energy intake?
A. 30%
B. 55% C. 65%
D. 85%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy
automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements?
A. Lat pulldown
B. Upright Row
C. Tricep extension
D. Shoulder press
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ?
A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty equipment
C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and
humid afternoon?
A. Consume 2 – 3 salt tablets per hour.
B. Consume 2 – 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 – 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following terms finish the acronym SMART with respect to goal setting: Specific, Measurable, Attainable
__________ and ____________.
A. Realistic, Tried B. Related, Tried
C. Realistic, Time-anchored
D. Related, Time-anchored
Correct Answer: C

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