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QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peer link 
B. vPC peer-keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
In the Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In the Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with a permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?
A. It restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. It is implemented only if no errors occur.
D. It is implemented and any errors are skipped.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_7rollback.htm

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q3

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to combine the advantages of a trunking F port and an F port channel.
Which command on a Cisco MDS switch should be used to enable this?
A. enable port-channel
B. feature trunking-fport
C. feature fport-channel-trunk
D. port-channel trunk
E. feature fport-trunk
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 6
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 9
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not recognized by the server.
What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
B. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
C. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
D. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the
following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is a symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q11

Which conditions can trigger on a Cisco Nexus device running FabricPath?
A. A switch connected to the Cisco Nexus device is running RSTP instead of STP.
B. A BPDU with bridge priority set to 61140 is received by the switch edge port.
C. The switch edge port in the STP domain is not configured as root.
D. VLAN is configured incorrectly on port-channel 100.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer\\’s representatives want to know
how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command
is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issue test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a
monitoring session?lead4pass 300-180 exam question q13

A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the default MAC address for the distributed gateway in the Cisco ACI Fabric is true?
A. There is no default MAC address.
B. A custom MAC address must be configured under each bridge domain.
C. The default MAC address is 00 11;BD:F9:88:0C.
D. The default MAC address is 00:22:BD:F8:19:FF.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?
A. It will always be the switches first and the APICs second.
B. It will always be the APICs first and the switches second.
C. It will always depend on the specifics of the software release.
D. It does not matter which you upgrade first (ARC/Switch) or second (APIC/Switch)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two actions occur when an EPG is being validated on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. IDs assignment validation
B. VLAN validation
C. path validation
D. BD, CTX configured validation
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 4
Which two statements about contract policy enforcement are true? (Choose two)
A. The class ID (or PCTag) of the source EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fsbric.
B. Contracts are always enforced m the ingress leaf
C. The class ID (or PCTag) of the destination EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fabric
D. Contracts are sometimes enforced in the ingress leaf and sometimes in the egress leaf.
E. Contracts are always enforced m the egress leaf
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two DMEs are running on a leaf switch? (Choose two.)
A. policy element
B. appliance director
C. spine manager
D. event manager
E. topology manager
F. policy manager
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 8
Which action is needed on a Cisco UCS to make ACI dynamic discovery work?
A. Enable VLAN grouping on the fabric interconnect uplinks.
B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Policy on the Cisco UCSM vNICs
C. Forward the infrastructure VLAN toward the ESX.
D. Use MTU 9000.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A VMM endpoint off of a UCSB is unable to hit its anycast gateway, but the MAC address of the VM can be seen in one
of the fabric interconnects Wh1Ch option is the cause of the issue?
A. The active NIC on the host has gone down and the host has not yet failed over.
B. There is no native VLAN configured within the data path of the Cisco UCS.
C. LLDP is not enabled in the vSwitch policies.
D. The VLAN tag is being changed at the vNIC or uplink port.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
At which point during VMM integration do you need to create the vDS switch within vCenter?
A. when starting up the VM
B. No need to create the vDS, the Cisco APIC controller does that automatically.
C. after assigning the EPG to the VMM controller
D. before defining the VLAN pool that is assigned to the VMM controller
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which Cisco UCS policy is required for VM endpoints to be discovered by the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. LAN connectivity policy
B. network control policy
C. dynamic vNIC connection policy
D. LACP policy
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for silent hosts to
communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using the proxy
because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP originator, so
it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP to the spine,
and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the entry remains
indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Which protocol runs between the vSmart controllers and between the vSmart controllers and the vEdge routers, and
unifies all control plane functions under a single: protocol umbrella1?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. IKE
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which Cisco products were incorporated into Cisco ISE between ISE releases 20 and 2.3?
A. Cisco ASA
B. Cisco ESA
C. Cisco ACS
D. Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 6
Which two statements describes Cisco SD-Access? (Choose Two.)
A. programmable overlays enabling network virtualization across the campus
B. an automated encryption/decryption engine for highly secured transport requirements
C. software-defined segmentation and policy enforcement based on user identity and group membership
D. a collection of tools and applications that are a combination of loose and tight coupling
E. an overlay for the wired infrastructure in which traffic is tunneled via a GRF tunnel lo a mobility controller for policy
and application visibility.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
Winch two primary categories are displayed on the overall health page of the assurance component in the Cisco DNA
Center? (Choose two.)
A. Wired
B. Client
C. Access-Distribution
D. Server
E. Network
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies Q allocating resources
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 12
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF


QUESTION 13
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 14
What are the three foundational elements required for the new operational paradigm? (Choose three.)
A. centralization
B. assurance
C. application QoS
D. multiple technologies at multiple OSI layers
E. policy based automated provisioning of network of fabric
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 15
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

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【latest version】The best and most updated ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training materials, ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. https://www.passitdump.com/010-111.html
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QUESTION 1
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the function of the tricuspid valve?
A. It acts as a pacemaker.
B. To pump blood through the heart.
C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.
D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?
A. Myofibril
B. Sarcomere
C. Myosin
D. Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B
010-111 exam
QUESTION 4                 010-111 exam
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?
A. Greater flexibility of the soleus
B. Lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus
C. Lesser force of action of the knee extensors
D. Lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What two muscles, along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, make up the rotator cuff?
A. Teres minor and scalenus
B. Teres minor and subscapularis
C. Teres major and scalenus
D. Teres major and subscapularis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?
A. Kyphotic curve
B. Scoliotic curve
C. Lordotic curve
D. Myotic curve
Correct Answer: C

010-111 exam QUESTION 12
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.
B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Adenosine triphosphate production via andquot;anaerobicandquot; glycolysis is associated with the significant formation
of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Who should obtain a physician\’s clearance before starting an exercise program?
A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program.
B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise.
C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise.
D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by
concentric action of the same muscle?
A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
B. Plyometrics
C. Dynamic Activity Preparation
D. Progression
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?
A. Perform less-intensively than normal
B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
If a food product had 250 kilocalories per serving, a recommended serving size of 5 ounces, and contained 10 servings
per container, how many kilocalories would one consume if s/he ate ?of the container?
A. 625
B. 937
C. 2500 D. 3125
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When reading the label on a new andquot;energyandquot; bar, you notice that the bar is andquot;sweetened with
fructoseandquot;. Based on this label, which of the following conclusions can you make about this product?
A. The bar is sweetened with a disaccharide.
B. Fructose in this bar would give it a high glycemic index.
C. The bar is sweetened with a monosaccharide.
D. Fructose is a type of organic micronutrient.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Cardiac output is a product of heart rate multiplied by ___________.
A. peripheral resistance.
B. blood pressure.
C. blood volume.
D. stroke volume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What action is involved in the concentric phase of the biceps curl?
A. Flexion at the elbow.
B. Extension at the elbow.
C. Pronation of the forearm.
D. Supination of the forearm.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A routine pattern of adhering to and documenting compliance with fitness industry guidelines is often an effective guard
against ________.
A. Breach of contract
B. Malfeasance
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
As the percentage of 1 RM (Repetition Maximum) resistance increases:
A. the amount of rest you should allow between training days should increase.
B. the number of sets performed should increase.
C. the number of repetitions until fatigue decreases.
D. the amount of rest you should allow between sets should decrease.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
An individual participates regularly in his workplace fitness program because he earns a discount on his health
insurance premium for doing so. For this individual, the discount is an example of ________ .
A. Relapse prevention
B. Intrinsic motivation
C. Self-monitoring. D. Extrinsic motivation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases
slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in
intensity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client\’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a
resistance training repetition?
A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate
C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure
D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises?
A. Circuit training
B. Interval training
C. Split routine training
D. Periodization training
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press?
A. Only after the movement ends.
B. Immediately before the movement begins.
C. During the eccentric phase of the movement.
D. During the concentric phase of the movement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery
disease?
A. Advanced age, gender, family history
B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus
C. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia
D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately what
percentage of his/her total energy intake?
A. 30%
B. 55% C. 65%
D. 85%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy
automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements?
A. Lat pulldown
B. Upright Row
C. Tricep extension
D. Shoulder press
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ?
A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty equipment
C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and
humid afternoon?
A. Consume 2 – 3 salt tablets per hour.
B. Consume 2 – 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 – 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following terms finish the acronym SMART with respect to goal setting: Specific, Measurable, Attainable
__________ and ____________.
A. Realistic, Tried B. Related, Tried
C. Realistic, Time-anchored
D. Related, Time-anchored
Correct Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Try

Best Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Questions Free Download

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of Cisco 700-038 exam several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Answer: A,C
700-038
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which sequence of Cisco 700-038 dumps steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco 700-038 vce Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Answer: C,D
700-038
QUESTION NO: 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Cisco 700-038 Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and
technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT
executives? (Choose two)A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural
design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational
business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the
customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose
two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the
associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach
outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and
business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s
organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM?
(Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a
specific industry. Where can you find resources that help you address verticals?
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market CiscoC. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 21
Which process makes use of the Cisco Installed Base Lifecycle Management (IBLM) initiative and
transformative network approach?
A. a high-level approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
B. a high-level approach in understanding the customer business model
C. a detailed approach in understanding the customer business model
D. a detailed approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which
of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
B. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. revenue streams
B. key partners
C. key resources
D. channelsE. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Retail businesses must act quickly in order to innovate, respond to changing market conditions, enhance
customer service, and increase sales. Which option addresses this requirement?
A. Cisco Lean Retail
B. Cisco Connected Retail
C. Cisco Employee Optimization
D. Cisco Customer Experience Transformation
E. Cisco Secure Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco Telepresence product series exemplifies simple-to-use immersive collaboration?
A. TX Series
B. MX Series
C. Profile Series
D. EX Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help lo build BOM faster”? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
B. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer’s business.
C. They help to verify any BOM that is created.
D. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which activity belongs to mapping business requirements to Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. developing the high-level and detailed customer designs
B. applying the requirement to the Cisco architecture reference model
C. identifying items from the architecture that would be used, such as switches and routers
D. building the customer design
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which HPE StoreVirtual features enable substantially increased effciency? (Select two.)
A. space reclamation
B. iSCSI storage clustering
C. storage federation
D. reservation-less thin provisioning
E. network RAID
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reducti n
E. Thin provisioning
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are using HPE Library and Tape Tools to document serial number and firmware versions of your customers tape
infrastructure. What do you use to perform this?
A. diagnostics option
B. device into option
C. support ticket option
D. failure analysis option
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer is opening a new remote office They have servers containing internal storage that they plan to virtualize
They currently own existing HPE Data Protector licenses Which data protection solution would be ideal for them?
A. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE StoreEasy 1000 C. HPE StoreOnce VSA
D. HPE StoreEver LTO-7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which RAID level uses double parity Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which element of HPE\’s BURA storage portfolio provides deduplicated backup disk storage?
A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEver
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Store All
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What does the HPE StoreVirtual solution provide?
A. scale-out storage
B. SAN. NAS and object storage
C. file level storage
D. scale-up storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which service is used in a NAS environment, but not a SAN environment?
A. block access services
B. direct access services
C. object access services D. file access services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ virtualization technology provides DHAM cache extension to reduce application response ti
for read intensive I/O workloads?
A. Priority Optimization
B. Adaptive Flash Cache
C. Persistent Cache
D. Rapid Provisioning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology supports automatic path rerouting it all ISLs between two switches fail?
A. Flat SAN
B. single cote-edge
C. cascade
D. mesh
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A customer has a number of server blades in a BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure and an HP D2220sb Storage Blade, and
wants to implement a small test and development iSCSI SAN. What can provide this functionality?
A. Windows Storage Server
B. VMware ESXi
C. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
D. HPE StoreOnce VSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under the HPE Converged Storage strategy, which type of primary storage is provided through NAS solutions?
A. sequential
B. object
C. block D. file
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which component performs the iSCSI encapsulation process in an iSCSI SAN environment when not using a TCP/IP
Offload Engine (TOE) card?
A. network switch
B. softwareinitiator
C. network interface card
D. GBIC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about thin provisioning?
A. It stores frequently accessed files in a local cache to reduce the consumed storage space.
B. It allows allocation of physical storage resources only after they are consumed by an application.
C. It removes allocated. Out unused space with minimal performance impact.
D. It uses a real-ti I/O engine to intelligently position data on the most appropriate tier of storage.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which operating systems support space reclamation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2012
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 SP2
C. VMware vSphere (ESXi) 5.x
D. Ubuntu 12 x
E. SLES 9 x
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which benefits are enabled by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO? {Select two.)
A. synchronous streaming replication between HPE StoreVirtual nodes
B. automatic creation of an I/O pain to each storage system in the cluster on which the volume resides C. Network RAID 10 use between multi-site clusters tor Windows servers
D. improved architecture over native MPIO solutions
E. enhanced backup capabilites of HPE StoreVirtual nodes
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Your customer is considering moving their storage from HPE ProLiant Servers with direct attached HPE D3700 storage
shelves, to HPE StoreVirtual VSA, You
want to demonstrate the management console to the customer.
Which console should you use?
A. CMC
B. SMU
C. SSMC
D. IMC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your customer requested a Network Attached Storage (NAS) solution that allows Microsoft Windows users to continue
working uninterrupted during hardware failures Which HPEStore Easy functionality supports transparent failover?
A. SMB V3
B. InstantOn
C. Data Guarding
D. Peer Motion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which HPE primary production storage solution is targeted to the small and mid-sized business markets?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE StoreAll
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE StoreEver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20

What are benefits of using the NinjaProtected Tool? (Select two.)
A. identifies the agents that the solution needs
B. identifies potential deduplication-driven benefits
C. measures the performance of transactions
D. assists in finding opportunities for cost reductions
E. simplifies the number of licenses required
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
What are hardware components of a Fibre Channel SAN fabric implementation? (Select two.)
A. server
B. enclosure
C. SFP+ transceivers
D. host bus adapter
E. array controller
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
A customer has the following requirements for a new storage solution for the company\’s 4-node HPE ProLiant DL380
Gen9 SQL Cluster: ?fully redundant SAS connectivity ?dual controller architecture ?mixed drive support ?4 pons per
controller ?SSD drive support Which storage solution meets the customer requirements?
A. HPE 3PAR 8200
B. HPE MSA 2040
C. HPE MSA 1040
D. HPE D3700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What is the term for the maximum allowable period for a business to be without a specific application should a disaster
occur?
A. Service Level Objective
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Recovery Point Objective D. Recovery Time Objective
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A customer is experiencing rapid data growth and requires more backup data to be available online. Which technology
could benefit the customer?
A. deduplication
B. wide striping
C. snapshots
D. tiering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which software is used to assign or zone D6000 drive bays directly to an HPE BladeSystem server bay?
A. Virtual SAS Manager (VSM)
B. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
C. Onboard Administrator (OA)
D. Array configuration utility (ACU)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which networking transport protocol is used in a NAS environment?
A. TCP
B. FCIP
C. Ethernet
D. Token Ring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which HPE management tool provides a single integrated management environment with powerful search capabilities
and an open architecture?
A. HPE Insight Remote Support
B. HPE Systems Insight Manager
C. HPE OneView D. HPE SUM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which benefit does dual-domain offer over dual-path SAS?
A. Dual-path SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HIBA) failure.
B. Dual-domain SAS implementations provide some lower cost solutions that cover cable failure.
C. Dual-path SAS implementations provide full redundancy of a SAS solution.
D. Dual-domain SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HBA) failure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A large SMB customer requests a storage solution in which downtime is not an option. What is the requirement?
A. RPO must be zero.
B. RPO must be very low.
C. RTO must be very low.
D. RTO must be zero.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First device
Correct Answer: B

HP HPE ATP – Storage Solutions V2 is omnipresent all around the world, and the HP HPE0-J74 business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies.

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[Latest Questions]Latest And Hottest IIA-CIA-PART2 Exam Practice Questions Free Try

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QUESTION 1
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
According to the Standards, which of the following is applicable to the internal audit activity\’s quality assurance and
improvement program?
A. Periodic monitoring of the internal audit activity should be done.
B. All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated.
C. An external assessment should be obtained every three years.
D. The review of assurance services should be the primary focus.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An audit of an organization\’s fulfillment department discovered that problems in the order processing system led to a
significant number of orders being fulfilled multiple times. During the exit conference, the head of the department
informed the auditors that the processing system would be enhanced within six months to correct the problems. Which
course of action should the chief audit executive follow?
A. Adjust the scope of the next scheduled audit to determine that the problems have been resolved.
B. Monitor the status of corrective action and schedule a follow-up engagement when appropriate.
C. Meet with the audit committee to determine the appropriate follow-up action.
D. Assess the status of corrective action in a follow-up engagement in six months.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
While conducting a payroll audit, an internal auditor in a large government organization found inadequate segregation in
the duties assigned to the assistant director of personnel. When the auditor explained the risk of fraud, the assistant
director became upset, terminated the interview, and threatened to sue the organization for defamation of character if
the audit engagement was not curtailed. The auditor discussed the situation with the chief audit executive (CAE). The
CAE should then:
A. Curtail the audit engagement to avoid potential legal action. B. Provide a report to senior management recommending a fraud investigation.
C. Continue the original engagement program as planned but include a comment about the assistant director\’s reaction
in the engagement final communication.
D. Add additional testing to determine whether other indicators of fraud exist.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a reason for an internal auditor to prepare an audit plan before the detailed audit work
begins?
A. The objectives of the audit should be set.
B. The organization\’s management should be informed about the work to be performed.
C. Attention should be devoted toward the key audit areas.
D. The timing of the audit should be set.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Because of a new marketing initiative, an organization has reduced requirements for extending credit to new customers.
As a result, outstanding accounts receivable as a percentage of revenue has increased significantly during the past two
years. Which of the following would be least useful in monitoring this finding?
A. Updates from the manager of accounts receivable regarding collection of outstanding receivables.
B. Updates from the information technology division regarding development of a new accounts receivable system.
C. Updates from the controller regarding the status of corrective actions.
D. Updates from the credit and marketing personnel tasked with reevaluating credit policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the
weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18
months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion
dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to
take?
A. Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.
B. Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of
service.
C. Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management\’s action plan.
D. Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables. Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an effective way for an internal auditor to improve communications with the client during a
contentious audit?
A. Encourage the client to participate as a partner in the decision-making process to determine the changes that need to
be made.
B. Clearly explain to the client the role of the internal audit activity in the change process.
C. Obtain the support of the board of directors for proposed changes before discussing the changes with operating
management.
D. Speak privately with key client personnel immediately after proposed changes are announced to address their
concerns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is the most important risk in determining the validity of construction delay claims?
A. Contractor claims may be submitted prior to completion of the work.
B. Contractor claims may include costs considered in the fixed-price portion of the work.
C. Contractor claims may include subcontractor estimates of balances due to the subcontractor.
D. Contractor claims may be understated.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
During an interview with a manager in a company\’s claims department, an auditor noted that the manager became
nervous and changed the subject whenever the auditor raised questions about certain types of claims. The manager\’s
answers were consistent with company policies and procedures. When documenting the interview, the auditor should:
A. Document the manager\’s answers, noting the nature of the nonverbal communication.
B. Document the manager\’s answers but not the nonverbal communication because it is subjective and is not
corroborated.
C. Conclude that the nonverbal communication is persuasive and that sufficient evidence exists to begin a fraud
investigation.
D. Disregard the interview entirely because the verbal and nonverbal communications were contradictory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Once an audit report is drafted, the auditor\’s supervisor should review it primarily to ensure that all:
A. Statements are supported and can be authenticated. B. Recommendations for corrective action are clear.
C. Processes within the audited area were reviewed.
D. Sample sizes appear appropriate for any issues found.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser
places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives
the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items
is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to
the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the
cash receipts process?
A. Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.
B. Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.
C. Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.
D. Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The internal audit activity\’s primary responsibility in a review or examination of the organization by an external
regulatory body is to:
A. Verify that regulatory reviews occur with adequate frequency.
B. Provide follow-up to determine if the regulator\’s findings are appropriately resolved by management.
C. Prepare documentation for the regulator.
D. Document the responses to the regulator\’s findings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which sampling plan requires no additional sampling once the first error is found?
A. Stratified sampling.
B. Attributes sampling.
C. Stop-or-go sampling.
D. Discovery sampling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

An internal auditor was assigned to conduct an inventory control and stock room area engagement. During the audit, the
auditor observed that there were some items that have a shelf life expiration date requirement based on a certificate of
conformance received with the product. The certificates of conformance are kept on file in the inventory area office and
the expiration date is verified at the time the item is taken from stock. The auditor reviewed the items in the stock room
and also on the production floor for the expiration dates to see if there was any expired product. All items with a shelf life
requirement were found to be within the expiration date requirement. Which of the following recommendations would be
appropriate?
A. Take no action, because all the items were within the expiration date requirement, and no corrective action is
needed.
B. Permit production staff the access to files where the certificates of conformity are kept, so they can choose the items
with the closest expiration date.
C. Determine the cost of inventory for the items that have a shelf life and apply a new policy regarding inventory levels
to be maintained (i.e., minimums, maximums, reorder points etc.).
D. Add to the product label a andquot;use by dateandquot; line, enter the expiration at the time of receipt, and perform
periodic inventory checks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An audit engagement objective at a manufacturer is to determine the quality of raw materials purchased. Which of the
following actions would best enable an internal auditor to satisfy this objective?
A. Analyze the provision for sales allowances.
B. Analyze the percentage of scrap incurred during production.
C. Research the rationale for customer returns.
D. Evaluate the volume and characteristics of products rejected during processing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit
departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance,
which of the following statements is true?
A. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.
B. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only
C. The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review
the reports after they are issued.
D. The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be included in an internal audit department\’s quality assurance and improvementprogram?
1.
Ongoing internal assessments of the performance of the internal audit department.
2.
Periodic internal reviews through self-assessments.
3.
Assessments conducted by a qualified external reviewer at least once every five years.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
The internal audit activity of an investment company received a request to provide assurance on the risk management
process. Preliminary discussion with senior management revealed that separate functions within the organization
perform some form of risk management activities. Which of the following is the most effective tool for ensuring that risk
management activities are coordinated among these functions?
A. Delphi technique.
B. Assurance map.
C. Facilitated workshop.
D. Analytical reviews.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An organization has a large number of vendors supplying goods to its various branches across the region. The code of
conduct statements signed by the employees specify that the employees or their families will not sell goods to the
organization. However, during the internal audit of a branch, the internal auditor suspected that some of the employees
may be supplying goods to the organization contrary to the code of conduct. The chief audit executive has requested
that a thorough review be completed to identify the potential employee vendors. Of the following tests, it would be least
useful to compare [List A] with [List B].
[List A] [List B]
A. Vendor bank account numbers Employee bank account numbers
B. Dates of payments to vendors Dates of salary payments to employees
C. Addresses of vendors from the vendor database Addresses of employees from the employee database D. Vendor names Employee names
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is most appropriate when conducting an interview during the course of a fraud investigation?
A. Schedule the interview well in advance.
B. Explain the detailed purpose to the interviewee.
C. Assume that the interviewee is guilty.
D. Have a witness present during the interview.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
In addition to the internal auditor, which of the following parties should be present at an exit or closing conference?
1.
Audit committee members.
2.
The external auditor.
3.
The management responsible for the areas covered by the engagement.
4.
The chief executive officer.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a preventive control for fraud?
A. Determining if the number of manually prepared disbursement checks is high.
B. Reconciling the purchase orders with the requisitions.
C. Verifying that new vendors appear on the vendor pre-approved list. D. Conducting an inventory count of the warehouse.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The most effective procedure to verify compliance with a requirement that materials be purchased from the lowest-
priced source is to compare:
A. Prices paid for selected materials with prices listed on related purchase orders.
B. Bids obtained for selected purchases with related purchase orders.
C. Vendors\’ current prices with prices listed on related purchase orders.
D. Approved vendor lists with bids obtained for selected purchases.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
An organization\’s policies allow buyers to authorize expenditures up to $50,000 without any other approval. Which of
the following audit procedures would be most effective in determining if fraud in the form of payments to fictitious
companies has occurred?
A. Use generalized audit software to list all purchases over $50,000 to determine whether they were properly approved.
B. Develop a snapshot technique to trace all transactions by suspected buyers.
C. Use generalized audit software to take a random sample of all expenditures under $50,000 to determine whether
they were properly approved.
D. Use generalized audit software to select a sample of paid invoices to new vendors and examine evidence that shows
that services or goods were received.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
The scope of a business process review primarily involves:
A. Appraising the environment and comparing against established criteria.
B. Assessing the organization\’s system of internal controls.
C. Reviewing routine financial information and assessing the appropriateness of various accounting treatments.
D. Evaluating organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of transaction flows.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
As part of an operational audit, an auditor compared records of current inventory with usage during the prior two-year
period and determined that the spare parts
inventory was excessive. What step should the auditor perform first?
A. Determine the effects of a stock-out on the organization\’s profitability.
B. Determine whether a clear policy exists for setting inventory limits.
C. Determine who approved the purchase orders for the spare parts.
D. Determine whether purchases were properly recorded.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Why should internal auditors develop a strong relationship with the external auditors?
A. External auditors offer an additional layer of approval to internal auditors\’ reports.
B. External auditors can help improve the effectiveness of internal control sampling techniques.
C. External auditors can offer an independent and knowledgeable viewpoint.
D. External auditors can share information gained from work with similar clients.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, the internal audit activity\’s decision to defer follow-up
of recommendations and management\’s corrective actions until the next scheduled engagement for the area is justified
when:
A. The reported findings or recommendations are significant enough to require immediate action by management.
B. The action taken by management to address the recommendation is sufficient when weighed against the importance
of the finding.
C. Management has adequately understood and appropriately accepted the risk of not taking action to implement the
recommendation.
D. The significance of the finding or recommendation will allow auditors to perform monitoring by receiving periodic
updates from management on corrective actions taken.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department
of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and
financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in
decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security
at that level. C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the
system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Mobile Agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. An additional voice gateway is required for Silent Monitoring.
B. They extend and connect.
C. They perform call control features (example: Hold/Conference/Transfer) only from the agent desktop.
D. They are limited only to PSTN phones and mobile phone; IP phones are not supported.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, which two Dialing Modes
apply to Transfer to IVR based campaigns? (Choose two.)
A. Preview dialing mode
B. Direct Preview dialing mode
C. Progressive dialing mode
D. Predictive dialing mode
E. Callback mode
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, in which order does the
Campaign Manager process perform record queries to send them to Dialer for dialing?
A. pending contacts, callbacks, retries
B. callbacks, retries, pending contacts
C. retries, callbacks, pending contacts
D. pending contacts, pending callbacks, pending retries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary
servers accept when HTTPS protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop?
(Choose two.)
A. digital certificate
B. certificate authority certificate
C. domain validation certificate
D. self-signed certificate
E. root certificate
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How does the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution encrypt the logger database?
A. AES
B. SHA
C. MD5
D. TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which option is needed from the primary and secondary servers for
certificate authority to generate a root, intermediate, and application certificate for Cisco Finesse?
A. fully qualified domain name of the servers
B. physical MAC address of the NIC card from the Cisco Finesse servers
C. Certificate Signing Request
D. IP address of server
E. system ID of the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When using microapps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified
Communications Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
For the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Outbound option, which Cisco Unified Communications Manager
feature can be used to disable ringback during transfer to agent for a scenario that involves SIP trunks?
A. replaces header script
B. normalization script
C. association script
D. transformation script
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which type of MTP is supported with Cisco Unified Mobile Agent?
A. MTP Pass-Through
B. MTP No Pass-Through
C. MTP Pass-Around
D. MTP No Pass-Around
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 600-455 exam question

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), when agents login into the desktop as a Mobile Agent, which number is used in
the highlighted Extension field?
A. the local CTI port dialed number
B. the remote CTI port dialed number
C. agent PSTN number (accessible from CUCM/GW)
D. agent ID
E. agent reservation script dialed number
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Extensions on the same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to
forward inbound ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with clustering over the WAN, which statement
about the Cisco Unified Communications Manager peripheral gateway duplex pair is true?
A. Each side of the peripheral gateway pair (side A and side B) must be configured to point to a local and
a remote CTI Manager across the WAN from the PG location.
B. The peripheral gateway private network may be shared with any other private connections– peripheralgateways or call routers/loggers.
C. The peripheral gateway may use the highly available WAN connection between the sites (visible
network) for all traffic–visible and private.
D. The peripheral gateways must be co-located at one side or the other of the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications
Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution?
A. Add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration.
B. Add a second TFTP server to the cluster.
C. Add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Group defined in device pool of the Cisco IP Phone.
D. Use an SRST reference in the device pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
To maintain end-to-end reporting context, when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group, to
which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred?
A. route pattern
B. agent IP phone
C. CTI route point
D. translation pattern
E. translation route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is designed with geographic redundancy for the central
controllers (with separate call routers and loggers).
If Call Router Side A has device majority and its Ethernet private network NIC fails, which two events
occur? (Choose two.)
A. The Call Router Side B stays active, while the Call Router Side A goes idle.
B. The Call Router Side A stays active, while Call Router Side B goes idle.
C. There is no ability to make ICM configuration changes.
D. Both sides go out of service for small period of time, Call Router Side A goes active, and Call Router
Side B goes idle.
E. The system operates as it did prior to failure.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which failure scenario in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution stops all processing and
routing of contact center calls?
A. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
B. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
C. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
D. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
E. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Call Router Side B fails.F. ICM Logger Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model are true? (Choose two.)
A. With Cisco Unified Computing System C-Series Servers, you must deploy dual SAN on each data
center.
B. The visible network that supports the communication between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
subscriber nodes must be highly available and designed with no single point of failure.
C. Agents at remote locations must be registered to only one data center for their Cisco Unified IP Phone
connections if they are using Cisco Finesse.
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise IVR Peripheral Gateway cannot be split between the data
center locations to maintain a local JTAPI connection for call control.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Peripheral Gateways that are split between the two data
centers can share the same private network connection as the central controller (router and logger)
components.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which three statements about QoS in a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management solution are true?
(Choose three.)
A. In a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management network, if the traffic is marked in the ICM, QoS trust
needs to be enabled on access-layer routers and switches.
B. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 90 percent of total available
bandwidth.
C. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 75 percent of total available
bandwidth.
D. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 65 percent of total available
bandwidth.
E. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is no longer necessary.
F. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is still necessary.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 19
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified
Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three system responses are valid if the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (centralized
deployment with remote branches) and the remote branch lose the public network connection to both of
the data centers? (Choose three.)
A. The local voice gateway detects the failure of the communications path. The voice gateway goes into
SRST mode to provide local dial-tone functionality.B. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then executes local bootstrap TCL script, answers the call, and forwards it
to the hunt group.
C. The active call that arrived at the local PSTN connection and was answered by agent at that site
remains active, however, the agent peripheral gateway loses access to the call and creates a TCD
record.
D. The Cisco Finesse server detects the loss of connectivity to the agent desktop and automatically signs
the agent out of the system.
E. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then connects to the communication manager cluster to provide local dial-
tone functionality.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 21
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small
agents branch provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few
agents.
B. It requires only limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS
lines for emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering
over the WAN deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence
time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is
pinned to a single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network
path as redundant link with QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500
ms convergence time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to
ensure latency and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms
convergence time.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23
Which two options are required for the private link in the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution?
(Choose two.)
A. path diversity
B. Layer 3 quality of service prioritization and queuing
C. max of 1500 ms round trip time latency tolerance
D. variable layer subnet masking
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on
separatedomains.
Which two requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform DNS lookup of the other server using fully
qualified domain name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP address.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using
the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25
Which option describes the impact of co-loading the Cisco Unified Outbound SIP Dialer on the same
servers as the agent peripheral gateway in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer does not reduce agent capacity on the peripheral gateway server.
B. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of four–each outbound port is
equivalent to four agents on the peripheral gateway.
C. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 1.33–each outbound port is
equivalent to 1.33 agents on the peripheral gateway.
D. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 15–each outbound port is
equivalent to 15 agents on the peripheral gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the
supervisors are located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The
customer requires that supervisors from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With
BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP streams are needed between the data center and
agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which four items are factors of bandwidth requirements for the visible network connection between the
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent Peripheral Gateway and the call router? (Choose four.)
A. busy hour call attempts
B. number of skill groups per agent
C. number of agents
D. number of call types
E. percent of traffic with Courtesy Callback
F. number of call and ECC variables
G. number of concurrent real-time reports
H. percent of traffic requires Agent Greeting
I. percent of traffic requires Whisper AnnouncementsCorrect Answer: ABCF

QUESTION 28
Which VMware feature is supported for use with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. VMware vMotion
B. VMware distributed vSwitch
C. VMware consolidated backup
D. VMware snapshots
E. vDisk thick provisioning
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which two statements about a Contact Center Enterprise solution in virtualized environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A. UCS B/C series NIC teaming is supported.
B. 10/100 NIC speeds are supported.
C. Gigabit Ethernet Auto Negotiation is optional for NIC and switch.
D. 802.1Q uplinks to VMware hosts must not be configured for host/edge spanning-tree forwarding.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 30
In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), which VM network adapter type removes the requirement to disable the LRO
feature on the VM host?
A. Vlance network adapter type
B. Flexible VM network adapter type
C. E1000 network adapter type
D. VMXNET network adapter type
E. VMXNET3 network adapter type
Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-ucced.html

Related: http://www.geturnet.com/latest-cisco-200-105-dumps/

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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has a full deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You install Windows Server 2012 on a new server.
You need to ensure that you can configure the Dynamics CRM settings on Server1 from Server2 by using Windows
PowerShell.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Deployment Tools server role
B. The Developer Toolkit for Microsoft Dynamics CRM
C. The OrgDBOrgSettings tool
D. The Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are asked to identify the benefits of performing an in-place upgrade instead of a migration that uses a new instance
of Microsoft SQL Server. Which two benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Easiest to recover if a database failure occurs
B. Minimizes hardware costs
C. Easiest to perform
D. Minimizes downtime
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your company signs an agreement with a hosting company that will host Dynamics CRM for your company.
The hosting company implements a new deployment of Dynamics CRM for your company. You need to import one of
the existing organizations to the new
deployment of Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From Deployment Manager, modify the existing organization.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a backup of the organization database.
C. From File Explorer, copy the .mdb files. D. From the Dynamics CRM web application, export the site map.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains a server named Server1.
Server1 has the following components installed:
All of the Dynamics CRM Front End Server roles
All of the Dynamics CRM Back End Server roles
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
Microsoft SQL Server
From Deployment Manager, you disable Server1.
Which two components will stop? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer service
B. Sandbox Processing Service
C. The SQL Server service
D. SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
E. Email Integration Service
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are planning the deployment of Microsoft SQL Server for a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015. The planned
deployment will contain a standby copy of the SQL databases in a remote data center. You need to recommend a
solution for keeping the standby databases up-to-date.
What should you recommend?
A. Database mirroring
B. AlwaysOn Availability Groups
C. File Replication Service (FRS)
D. Transaction log shipping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. The server runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to change the user account used to start the Dynamics CRM services in the least amount of time possible.What should you use?
A. Deployment Manager
B. Add or remove programs
C. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You complete the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
You need to ensure to that users on the Internet can access the deployment.
What should you create?
A. A Kerberos delegation in Active Directory
B. A service connection point (SCP) in Active Directory
C. A zone delegation in the internal DNS zone
D. A record in the external DNS zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015.
You import a new organization to the deployment.
Which statement accurately describes what occurs when you import the new organization?
A. The tables from the new organization are merged into the existing organization.
B. The existing organization is removed.
C. The existing databases are removed.
D. You are prompted to upgrade to Dynamics CRM Server 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing EmailUsers will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a server that has Dynamics CRM 2013 and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions installed.
You plan to upgrade to Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to ensure that the server uses the Dynamics CRM 2015 version of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting
Extensions.
What should you do?
A. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics
CRM 2015, and then install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions.
B. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015
Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
C. Upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015, and then perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions.
D. Perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from
Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A user named Admin1 recently installed Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to instruct Admin1 to prepare the installation to meet the following requirements:
Another user named Admin2 must be able to create an organization.
Five users must be able to manage Dynamics CRM 2015 data.
Only the required client access licenses (CALs) must be purchased.
Which three tasks should you instruct Admin1 to do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.A. From Deployment Manager, add Admin2.
B. Purchase five CALs.
C. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add Admin2.
D. From Deployment Manager, add the five users.
E. Purchase seven CALs.
F. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add the five users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
You are evaluating the deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
All users will access the deployment from the internal network only by using several different client types.
You need to identify which client types require an Internet-facing deployment.
Which three client types should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Dynamics CRM for Android
B. Dynamics CRM for iPad
C. Dynamics CRM web application
D. Dynamics CRM for Windows Phone 8
E. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 to five internal users on the network and to five external users.
Only the internal users will create workflows. All of the users will use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to recommend which licenses must be purchased for the planned deployment. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you recommend?
A. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and one External
Connector (EC) license
B. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five Professional CALs
C. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five
Professional CALs
D. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Professional client access licenses (CALs), and one ExternalConnector (EC) license
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
is installed on a different server.
You implement an Internet-facing deployment by using the default configurations and ports. You have an organization
named CRM in a domain named
contoso.com.
You need to identify which URL users must use to access the Dynamics CRM deployment from the Internet.
Which URL should you identify?
A. http://crm.contoso.com/default.aspx
B. https://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
C. http://crm.contoso.com:443
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
E. http://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message
header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook. What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement correctly describes the backup and restore capabilities of Microsoft System Center 2012 for Dynamics
CRM 2015?
A. System Center 2012 can use the VSS writer to back up the Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 databases used by
Dynamics CRM 2015.
B. System Center 2012 can provide automatic failover of the Dynamics CRM 2015 databases.
C. System Center 2012 can be used to perform granular restores of individual objects in Dynamics CRM 2015.
D. System Center 2012 can be used to back up the databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015 while users are connected
to the organization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains multiple organizations.
You need to limit the number of systems jobs that can be queued for a single organization.
What should you do?
A. From the web application, modify the system settings.
B. From Deployment Manager, modify the organization settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-CRMAdvancedSettings cmdlet
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Edit-CRMOrganization cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have a network that contains a single IP subnet.
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server cluster that contains two SQL Server servers. You launch the setup program for
Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to configure Dynamics CRM 2015 to use the SQL Server cluster.
What should you enter on the Select SQL Server page? A. The management IP address of the SQL Server cluster
B. The IP address of one of the SQL Server servers
C. The virtual server name of the SQL Server cluster
D. The name of one of the SQL Server servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You plan to install Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to identify which technologies will be installed automatically by the Dynamics CRM 2015 setup program.
Which two technologies should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
B. The Dynamics CRM Email Router
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
D. Microsoft .NET Framework
E. The Web Server (IIS) server role
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers. You need to identify the location of offline
Dynamics CRM data on the client computers.
Which location should you identify?
A. An Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) file
B. A Storage Space in Windows Server
C. A Microsoft SQL Server Express database
D. An Outlook Offline Data (.ost) file
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.

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You need to create custom reports by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension. On which
computer should you install the extensions?
A. Computer1
B. Computer2
C. Computer3
D. Computer4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization named ORG1.
You need to create a disaster recovery plan for the deployment.
Which two databases should you include in the disaster recovery plan? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution?
A. msdb
B. mscem_config
C. master
D. org1_mscrm
E. tempdb
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
You plan to create a new Dynamics CRM 2015 organization by using the New- CRMOrganization Windows PowerShell
cmdlet.
You need to identify the required PowerShell parameters for the new organization.
Which three parameters should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. -SRSUrt
B. -BaseCurrencyCode C. -DisplayName
D. -SQLServerName
E. -BaseLanguageCode
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
You are planning a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that will contain two Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Two hundred users will access the deployment from the internal network. Fifty users will access the deployment from
client sites. All of the users will use
Dynamics CRM client applications.
You need to recommend the minimum number of licenses that must be purchased for the planned deployment.
How many licenses should you recommend?
A. Two server licenses and 250 client access licenses (CALs)
B. One server license and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
C. Two server licenses and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
D. Two server licenses, 200 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
E. Two server licenses, 250 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015.
You plan to use smart matching and tracking tokens.
What information in email messages do tracking tokens rely on to identify items that should be tracked?
A. An alphanumeric string generated at the end of the subject line
B. An alphanumeric string generated at the beginning of the subject line
C. The email address of the sender and the recipient
D. A token that contains an alphanumeric string that is located in the email header
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
You deploy Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to identify the maximum number of addresses that can be synchronized from a Microsoft Outlook contact to a
contact record in Dynamics CRM. How many should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
You need to identify which type of file is used to store the definition for Dynamics CRM reports. Which file type should
you identify?
A. RDL
B. VSPX
C. SQL
D. RDLX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You need to configure email synchronization for a Dynamics CRM 2015 user. Which record should you modify?
A. Contact
B. User
C. Account
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You plan to install a Dynamics CRM 2015 Back End Server.
You need to identify which three server roles are installed on a Back End Server.
Which three roles should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Asynchronous Processing Service
B. Discovery Web Service
C. Organization Web Service
D. Email Integration Service E. Sandbox Processing Service
F. Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer
Correct Answer: CDE

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