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QUESTION 1
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS
ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type
must be selected?
A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4
What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?
A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.
B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby
mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number
into a localized format?
A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7
An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?
A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?
A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled disconnect a multiparty call when
the call initiator hangs up?
A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two
messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PRACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is
necessary to enable MGCP?
A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

 

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

 

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

 

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

 

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-535 exam dumps, 300-535 exam questions and answers! 300-535 pdf, 300-535 exam video!
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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROPlead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

 

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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[2020.7-2020.8] Microsoft 70-740 exam practice questions and success secrets

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Exam 70-740: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-740

Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.

Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.

Skills measured

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
  • Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
  • Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
  • Implement High Availability (30-35%)
  • Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Latest Updates Microsoft 70-740 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

You have a stretch cluster that contains four nodes.
You run Get-ClusterFaultDomain and receive the output shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab).

braindump4it 70-740 q1

Node1 and Node2 are in a data center in an Active Directory site named London_Site. Node3 and Node4 are in an
Active Directory site named Berlin_Site.
You need to ensure that the active nodes are in London_Site unless both Node1 and Node2 are offline.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q1-1

References: https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Failover-Clustering/Site-aware-Failover-Clusters-in-WindowsServer-2016/ba-p/372060

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click
Operations Master.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

This solution only shows the domain FSMO roles, not the forest FSMO roles.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role and Docker
installed.
You pull the Microsoft/IIS Docker image to Server1.
You need to view the available space in the Microsoft/IIS Docker image.
Solution: You run the following commands.
docker run -name container1 -d Microsoft/IIS docker exec -I container1 cmd.exe dir
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/commandline/container_exec/#options https://www.windowscommandline.com/get-file-size-directory-size-command/

QUESTION 4

You are preparing an image of Windows Server 2016.
The image is missing the driver for a network adapter that is required in your environment.
You need to ensure that the image contains the network adapter driver.
Which three cmdlets should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the? answer area and arrange them m the correct order.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 70-740 q4

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q4-1

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that has two network adapters.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q5

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q5-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/create-a-new-nicteam-on-a-host-computer-or-vm https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/netlbfo/new-netlbfoteam?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 6

You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that is in a Running state.
On Server1, you export VM1 and then you import VM1 on Server2.
What is the current state of VM1 on Server2?
A. Paused
B. Off
C. Saved
D. Running

Correct Answer: C

References: https://blog.workinghardinit.work/2016/06/16/live-export-a-running-virtual-machine-or-a-checkpoint/

QUESTION 7

Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you
can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server. Which type of virtual
network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well as any network traffic between the
management operating system and the external network.
A. Private virtual network
B. Internal virtual network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q8

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q8-1

QUESTION 9

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy the first node cluster of a Network Controller cluster.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 70-740 q9

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q9-1

Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10
domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. You run the Active Directory Domain
Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.

QUESTION 10

You have a Hyper-V cluster that uses Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). The cluster contains 20 virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a single disk.
You create a storage QoS policy that sets the minimum IOPS to 100 and the maximum IOPS to 200.
You need to ensure that the storage traffic of each virtual machine complies with the storage QoS policy.
What should you run?
A. Set-VMHardDiskDrive
B. Set-VM
C. Set-VMHost
D. Set-VHD

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/hyper-v/set-vmharddiskdrive?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 11

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016
and is configured as shown in the following table.

braindump4it 70-740 q11

You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is
running. What should you do?
A. Disable Dynamic Memory
B. Enable Integration Services
C. Upgrade the configuration version

Correct Answer: A

References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hot-add-remove-memory-hyper-v-2016/

QUESTION 12

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice maybe
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named
Cluster1 As virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1 You need to configure monitoring of VM1 The solution must
move VM1 to a different node if the Print Spooler service on VM1 stops unexpectedly Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management console
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management console
F. the Failover Cluster Manager console
G. the Hyper-V Manager console
H. the Server Manager Desktop app

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 13

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server

Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named
VM1.
Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3 and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2.
The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

braindump4it 70-740 q13

VM1 is stored in C:\ClusterStorage\Volume1.
You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q13-1

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[Latest updated] Cisco 200-901 exam practice questions and success secrets

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200-901 DEVASC – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devasc-200-901.html

This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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Aruba Certified Mobility Professional Exam: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A71

This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.

Latest Updates HP HPE6-A71 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
A VIA client tries to initially connect to a corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN
connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500
are configured.
Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. UDP 8200
C. ESP
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator supports a group of employees that connect to the corporate office using the VIA client. An Aruba
Mobility Controller (MC), behind a corporate firewall, terminates the user\\’s VPN sessions. The VPN sessions fail to
establish because of the existing firewall rules.
Which connections must the administrator allow on the firewall? (Choose three.)
A. TCP 443
B. UDP 8211
C. UDP 8202
D. UDP 500
E. UDP 4500
F. TCP 4443
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 3
What can be determined from the command output shown below?braindump4it HPE6-A71 exam questions q3

A. The synchronized data is protected by VRRP.
B. The command was executed on the standby Mobility Master (MM).
C. The synchronization period is at its default value.
D. The other Mobility Master (MM) is the active license server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A guest establishes an authenticated wireless session to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). The controller uses a
ClearPass server for all AAA functions.
Which AAA component disconnects the user when the guest exceeds their allowed duration?
A. SNMP Disconnect
B. Active Directory Session Limits
C. RADIUS Authorization Profile
D. RADIUS Change of Authorization
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Where on the Mobility Master (MM) can an administrator configure the VIA connection profile?
A. User Roles
B. L3 Authentication
C. AAA Profiles
D. L2 Authentication
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A company opens a new branch office and a RAP is used to connect to a corporate office Aruba Mobility Controller
(MC). The company needs to provide connectivity to the office across the street. There is an AP across the street.
However,
there is no wired connectivity between the buildings.
Which actions can the administrator select to provide the required connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Implement two mesh clusters.
B. Provision the RAP as a Remote Mesh Portal.
C. Provision all APs at the branch offices as Mesh Points.
D. Provision all APs at the branch offices as Mesh Portals.
E. Implement one of the APS as a Mesh Point.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to apply a patch to an Aruba environment to implement improvements for AirWatch. What is the
Aruba recommended approach for this process without a reboot?
A. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on the Mobility Master.
B. Upgrade the ArubaOS by the use of Live Upgrades (in-service upgrades).
C. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on each Mobility Controller.
D. Create controller partitions to minimize downtime.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
An administrator enables AP load balancing for a cluster of Mobility Controllers (MCs). APS connected to the cluster
have an LMS IP address configured in their AP Group configuration. No other parameters are changed in the cluster. If
the two load AP thresholds are reached, what occurs?
A. The users and APs are rebalanced across the cluster.
B. The APS is rebalanced across the cluster.
C. The users are rebalanced across the cluster.
D. The APS always stays connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP Group profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An administrator supports an Aruba wireless solution that uses ClearPass to implement server role assignments. A user
reports that they are not able to access the correct department resources. The administrator determines from the
connected controller that the user is associated with the login user profile instead of the department user profile.
What should the administrator examine on the ClearPass server to determine the Aruba VSA User Role value that
ClearPass returns to the controller?
A. Accounting
B. Audit Viewer
C. Event Viewer
D. Access Tracker
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator manages an Aruba wireless network. ClearPass is used to centralize AAA functions. The administrator
wants to implement server role derivation.
Which information will the ClearPass server return in regard to the user role assignment?
A. RADIUS VSA Firewall-Role
B. Aruba VSA Aruba-User-Role
C. RADIUS VSA User-Role
D. Aruba VSA Firewall-Role
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.braindump4it HPE6-A71 exam questions q11

An administrator wants to verify the operation of MultiZone in a network. The administrator uses the command to show ap
debug multizone to generate the output shown in the exhibit. Based on the output, which statement is true?
A. Zone 1 is the primary zone, and zone 0 is the data zone.
B. The MultiZone APs are in a cluster.
C. The maximum VAPs in the MultiZone is 15.
D. The primary zone has limited the data zone to one WLAN.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should
be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. root
B. network-operations
C. location-API-management
D. AP-provisioning
Correct Answer: B

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[2020.6] Latest HPE6-A70 Exam Practice Questions and HPE6-A70 Exam Dumps

hp Aruba ACMA HPE6-A70 exam questions

How do I get the latest HP HPE6-A70 exam exercise questions and HPE6-A70 exam dumps? Braindump4it updates HP Free Exam Dump Blog throughout the year! “Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam” HPE6-A70 exam. You can find the free HPE6-A70 pdf, HPE6-A70 practice question online test, and our recommended Lead4pass.com brand site in Braindump4it! Easy access to HPE6-A70 exam dumps!

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Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A70

The Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam tests your knowledge and skills to deploy AOS 8 single-site, on premise, geographically simple enterprise WLANs.

Latest Updates HP HPE6-A70 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
An Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution has a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. A test login on a
wireless client fails.
How can a network administrator determine whether the RADIUS server rejected the credentials or another issue
occurred?
A. Use the tools in the MM Dashboard > Security window.
B. Use the MC AAA Server Test Diagnostic tool.
C. Ping the IP address configured as the RADIUS server.
D. View Technical Support information for the MM.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A company has an Aruba solution that supports an employee WLAN. How can network administrators control in which
Do subnets users receive IP addresses?
A. Assign switch ports connected to APs to VLANs associated with the desired subnets.
B. Set the VLANs associated with desired subnets in the WLAN settings.
C. Configure firewall policies that permit the desired subnet, and add them to the initial role for the WLAN.
D. In the WLAN settings, configure User role rules with the desired subnet addresses as match criteria.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q3

The exhibit shows the AAA profile for a WLAN on an Aruba solution. This WLAN uses 802.1X authenticate users to a
RADIUS server. A user successfully authenticates with 802.1X, but the RADIUS server does not send a role
assignment.
How does the Aruba firewall handle the role assignment for this user?
A. It does not assign a role.
B. It applies the Aruba VSA role, employee.
C. It assigns the logon role.
D. It assigns the authenticated role.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q4

Which role must AP 1 play?
A. Remote AP (RAP)
B. Mesh Portal AP
C. Instant AP (IAP)
D. Mesh Point AP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)?
A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade AirMatch separately as a loadable service
module (LSM).
B. Upgrade Client Match and AirMatch separately as loadable service modules (LSMs).
C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.
D. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client Match separately as a loadable service
module (LSM).
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures this policy:hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q6

Users to which this policy applies are unable to receive IP addresses with DHCP. How should the administrator fix the
issue?
A. Move the user any svc-DHCP permit rule to the bottom of the list.
B. Remove the deny rule from the policy.
C. Use the correct service alias in the user any svc-DHCP permit rule.
D. Change the user to any in the user any svc-DHCP permit rule.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Exhibit 1hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q7

Exhibit 2

hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q7-1

A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution and needs a new WLAN for the corporate campus. A
network administrator completes the creation of this WLAN, as shown in Exhibit 1. When administrators try to test a
connection to the WLAN, the WLAN does not show up in the list of WLANs on the client. The administrator can see the
WLAN in the list, as shown in Exhibit 2.
What is the error?
A. The configuration is not deployed.
B. The WLAN is configured at a lower level in the Managed Network hierarchy.
C. The Mobility Master (MM) does not have an active PEFNG license.
D. The WLAN is configured as a hidden SSID.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. Where can a network administrator look to find a list of
alerts about a variety of issues on the MM or managed devices?
A. the top banner
B. the MM Maintenance pages
C. the Performance dashboard
D. the Potential issues dashboard
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to host a guest login portal with this solution, and the login portal
must give guests the option to create their own login accounts.
How can a network administrator help meet these criteria?
A. Choose the Internal captive portal with an email registration option for the guest WLAN.
B. Choose ClearPass or the other external captive portal option for the guest WLAN.
C. Make sure to create a guest provisioning account for the guest WLAN.
D. Disable authentication in the captive portal profile for the guest WLAN.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
How can a network administrator provide high availability for APs deployed in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based
architecture?
A. Deploy all licenses locally to APs, so that they can continue to function if they lose contact with their controller.
B. Configure APs to convert to controller-less Instant AP mode during controller failure.
C. Establish clusters of Mobility Controllers (MCs).
D. Configure MM to provide backup AP tunnel termination in case of controller failure.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit 1

hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q11

A company has an Aruba solution. Client 1 is assigned to the users1 role, and Client 2 is assigned to the users2 role.
The exhibits show current firewall rules for those roles. The network1 alias used to be 10.1.1.0/24, but the network
administrator now changes the network1 alias to 172.16.1.0/24. Client 1 and Client 2 both then send a packet destined
to 172.16.1.10.
How does the firewall handle these packets?
A. It denies both packets.
B. It denies the packet from Client 1 and permits the packet from Client 2.
C. It permits both packets.
D. It permits the packet from Client 1 and denies the packet from Client 2.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. Under which circumstance will an AP radio change
channel without the use of the Mobility Master (MM)?
A. when the MM detects that a different channel has significant better quality
B. when the AP detects a large amount of interference on its channel
C. when the Mobility Controller (MC) detects a rogue AP on the channel
D. when the Client Match rules indicate that nearby clients do not support the current channel
Correct Answer: B

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The performance-based Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 (EX300) tests to determine if your knowledge, skill, and ability meet those required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat® Enterprise Linux® systems. Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA®) certification is required to earn RHCE® certification.

This exam and the exam objectives provided here are based on the Red
 Hat Enterprise Linux 7 version of the exam.

An RHCE certification is earned by a Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) who has demonstrated the knowledge, skill, and ability required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat Enterprise Linux systems.

Latest updates RedHat EX300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

SIMULATION 

Configure the nfs server, share the /common directory to domain30.example.com, and allow client to have the root user

right when access as a root user. 

A. explanation 

Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here Webpage content modification. Implement website for http://serverX.example.com/owndir Create a
directory named as “owndir” under the document root of webserver Download
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/rhce/restrict.html Rename the file into ondex.html The content of the owndir
should be visible to everyone browsing from your local system but should not be accessible from other location
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure selinux.
Configure your systems that should be running in Enforcing.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q3

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here SMTP Configuration. Configure the SMTP mail service on serverX and desktopX which relay the mail
only from local system through station.network0.example.com, all outgoing mail have their sender domain as
example.com. Ensure that mail should not store locally. Verify the mail server is working by sending mail to a natasha
user. Check the mail on both serverX and desktopX with the below URL http://station.network0.example.com/system1
http://station.network0.example.com/system2
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q4

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You are working as an Administrator. There is a common data shared (/data) from 192.168.0.254 to all users in your
local LAN. When user\\’s system start, shared data should automatically mount on /common directory.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
To automatically mount at boot time, we use the /etc/fstab file. Because /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit file reads and mounts all file
system specified in /etc/fstab. To mount Network Sharing Files also use the /etc/fstab but filesystem is nfs.lead4pass ex300 exam question q5

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Script1.
Create a script on serverX called /root/random with the following details
When run as /root/random postconf, should bring the output as “postroll”
When run as /root/random postroll, should bring the output as “postconf”
When run with any other argument or without argument, should bring any other argument or without argument, should
bring the stderr as “/root/random postconf|postroll”
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q6

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q7

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure NFS service
Configure the NFS service on the system1, as required:
1.
Share the directory /public in read only way, just can be accessed by systems in domain11.example.com at the same
time.
2.
Share the directory /protected in rad and write way, Kerberos security encryption required, you can use the key
provided by the following URL: http://host.domain11.example.com/materials/nfs_server.keytab
3.
The directory /protected should contain the sub directory named project and the owner name is deepak;
4.
User deepak can access /protected/project in read and write ways
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
system1:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8lead4pass ex300 exam question q8

SIMULATION
Download file from http://ip/dir/restircted.html, and the local user harry can access it by
http://station.domain30.example.com/restircted.html, and cannot be accessed by t3gg.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10
The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0
Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are
all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q9

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be
able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using
virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link:
http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org
domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient
identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Database Query
Use database Contacts on the system1, and use the corresponding SQL to search and answer the following questions:
1.
What\\’s the person name whose password is solicitous?
2.
How many people\\’s names are John and live is Shanghai at the same time?
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q10

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score. You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be
accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems
of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure IPV6 Address
Configure interface eth0 on your test system, using the following IPV6 addresses: 1) The address of system1 should be
2003:ac18::305/64
(2)
The address of system2 should be 2003:ac18::30a/64
(3)
Both two systems must be able to communicate with systems in network 2003:ac18/64 (4) The address must still take
effect after restart
(5)
Both two systems must maintain the current Ipv4 address and can communicate
A.
explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11lead4pass ex300 exam question q11

SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure NFS mount.
Mount /nfsshare directory on desktopX under /public directory persistently at system boot time.
Mount /nfssecure/protected with krb5p secured share on desktopX beneath /secure/protected provided with keytab
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/
keytabs/desktopX.keytab
The user harry is able to write files on /secure directory
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-1

Verification from DesktopX:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-2

QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
Configure the web server, which can be accessed by http://station.domain30.example.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q12

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q13

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About the Exam

The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security. The CASP+ exam covers the following:

  • Enterprise security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques and requirements
  • More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyberdefense needs to meet business goals
  • Expanding security control topics to include mobile and small-form-factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
  • Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
  • Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as blockchain, cryptocurrency and mobile device encryption

Latest updates CompTIA CAS-003 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or
terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the
website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page
login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and
that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web
server log:
10.235.62.11 ?- [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET /site/script.php?user=admiand;pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200
5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented
by the developer?
A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and
the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the
browser side.
C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input
validation.
D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should
ensure strong passwords are enforced.
Correct Answer: C
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code `1=1\\’ will always provide a value of true.
This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.
In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It
is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements
are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must
exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for
string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly
executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL
database.

QUESTION 3
An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP
tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and
sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely
reason for the need to sanitize the client data?
A. Data aggregation
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data isolation
D. Data volume
E. Data analytics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing
sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically
destroyed.
Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?
A. Sovereignty
B. E-waste
C. Remanence
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-
related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be
used once or not at all.
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Correct Answer:

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Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.
With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot
control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.
Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data
would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.
No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.
Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified
as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant
risk.
Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to
certain windows.
The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application
windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.

QUESTION 6
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application.
The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application
designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance
overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select
TWO).
A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode
C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
D. Use AES with cipher text padding
E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
F. Use AES in Counter mode
Correct Answer: EF
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be
random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property
whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between
segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived
internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as
stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be
derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is
the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by
encrypting successive values of a “counter”. The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is
guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.

QUESTION 7
Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base. This purchase includes
several offices in different countries. To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee
activity may be monitored and reviewed. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this
practice?
A. The excessive time it will take to merge the company\\’s information systems.
B. Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements.
C. Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews.
D. The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user on a virtual machine downloads a large file using a popular peer-to-peer torrent program. The user is unable to
execute the program on their VM. A security administrator scans the VM and detects a virus in the program. The
administrator reviews the hypervisor logs and correlates several access attempts to the time of execution of the virus.
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior?
A. The hypervisor host does not have hardware acceleration enabled and does not allow DEP.
B. The virus scanner on the VM changes file extensions of all programs downloaded via P2P to prevent execution.
C. The virtual machine is configured to require administrator rights to execute all programs.
D. The virus is trying to access a virtual device which the hypervisor is configured to restrict.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
During an incident involving the company main database, a team of forensics experts is hired to respond to the breach.
The team is in charge of collecting forensics evidence from the company\\’s database server. Which of the following is
the correct order in which the forensics team should engage?
A. Notify senior management, secure the scene, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, implement chain
of custody, and analyze original media.
B. Take inventory, secure the scene, capture RAM, capture hard drive, implement chain of custody, document, and
analyze the data.
C. Implement chain of custody, take inventory, secure the scene, capture volatile and non-volatile storage, and
document the findings.
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D. Secure the scene, take inventory, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, document, and implement
chain of custody.
Correct Answer: D
The scene has to be secured first to prevent contamination. Once a forensic copy has been created, an analyst will
begin the process of moving from most volatile to least volatile information. The chain of custody helps to protect the
integrity and reliability of the evidence by keeping an evidence log that shows all access to evidence, from collection to
appearance in court.

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing company is having issues with unauthorized access and modification of the controls operating the
production equipment. A communication requirement is to allow the free flow of data between all network segments at
the site. Which of the following BEST remediates the issue?
A. Implement SCADA security measures.
B. Implement NIPS to prevent the unauthorized activity.
C. Implement an AAA solution.
D. Implement a firewall to restrict access to only a single management station.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security architect is seeking to outsource company server resources to a commercial cloud service provider. The
provider under consideration has a reputation for poorly controlling physical access to datacenters and has been the
victim of multiple social engineering attacks. The service provider regularly assigns VMs from multiple clients to the
same physical resources. When conducting the final risk assessment which of the following should the security architect
take into consideration?
A. The ability to implement user training programs for the purpose of educating internal staff about the dangers of social
engineering.
B. The cost of resources required to relocate services in the event of resource exhaustion on a particular VM.
C. The likelihood a malicious user will obtain proprietary information by gaining local access to the hypervisor platform.
D. Annual loss expectancy resulting from social engineering attacks against the cloud service provider affecting
corporate network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Company A is purchasing Company B, and will import all of Company B\\’s users into its authentication system.
Company A uses 802.1x with a RADIUS server, while Company B uses a captive SSL portal with an LDAP backend.
Which of the following is the BEST way to integrate these two networks?
A. Enable RADIUS and end point security on Company B\\’s network devices.
B. Enable LDAP authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
C. Enable LDAP/TLS authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
D. Enable 802.1x on Company B\\’s network devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on
their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\\’s guest WiFi network which is
isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be
accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the
doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to
prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
Correct Answer: AD
Privacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor\\’s personal device. This can then be
shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor\\’s personal device could have malware
on it.

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