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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS?
A. Patching operating system software
B. Encrypting data
C. Enforcing multi-factor authentication
D. Auditing physical data center assets
Correct Answer: D
Of course, Amazon is responsible for auditing physical data center assets and resources since it is the property of
Amazon Inc. Customers have no access to physical sites, hence they are not responsible for maintaining physical data
center assets.

 

QUESTION 2
An Amazon EC2 instance runs only when needed yet must remain active for the duration of the process. What is the
most appropriate purchasing option?
A. Dedicated Instances
B. Spot Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Reserved Instances
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://jayendrapatil.com/aws-ec2-instance-purchasing-option/

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following acts as a virtual firewall at the Amazon EC2 instance level to control traffic for one or more
instances?
A. Access keys
B. Virtual private gateways
C. Security groups
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/ec2-security-groups.html


QUESTION 4
According to the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for configuration management?
A. It is solely the responsibility of the customer.
B. It is solely the responsibility of AWS.
C. It is shared between AWS and the customer.
D. It is not part of the AWS shared responsibility model.
Correct Answer: C
AWS maintains the configuration of its infrastructure devices, but a customer is responsible for configuring their own
guest operating systems, databases, and applications. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/sharedresponsibility-model/

 

QUESTION 5
Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is a responsibility of AWS?
A. Enabling server-side encryption for objects stored in S3
B. Applying AWS IAM security policies
C. Patching the operating system on an Amazon EC2 instance
D. Applying updates to the hypervisor
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/shared-responsibility-model/?ref=wellarchitected

 

QUESTION 6
Which AWS service should be used to monitor Amazon EC2 instances for CPU and network utilization?
A. Amazon Inspector
B. AWS CloudTtail
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS Config
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are the benefits of running a database on amazon rds compared to an on-premises database?
A. RDS backup is managed by AWS
B. RDS supports any relational database
C. RDs has no database engineer licensing costs.
D. RDS database computes capacity can be easily scaled.
E. RDS inbound traffic content (for example, security groups) is managed by AWS.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are benefits of AWS Global Accelerator? (Choose two.)
A. Reduced cost to run services on AWS
B. Improved availability of applications deployed on AWS
C. Higher durability of data stored on AWS
D. Decreased latency to reach applications deployed on AWS
E. Higher security of data stored on AWS
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/global-accelerator/faqs/

 

QUESTION 9
AWS CloudFormation is designed to help the user:
A. model and provision resources.
B. update application code.
C. set up data lakes.
D. create reports for billing.
Correct Answer: A
AWS CloudFormation provides a common language for you to model and provision AWS and third-party application
resources in your cloud environment. AWS CloudFormation allows you to use programming languages or a simple text
file to model and provision, in an automated and secure manner, all the resources needed for your applications across
all regions and accounts. This gives you a single source of truth for your AWS and third-party resources.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cloudformation/


QUESTION 10
Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over traditional database
management?
A. AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables.
B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system.
C. AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand.
D. AWS manages the database type.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which AWS service can be used to turn text into life-like speech?
A. Amazon Polly
B. Amazon Transcribe
C. Amazon Rekognition
D. Amazon Lex
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/polly/#:~:text=Amazon%20Polly%20is%20a%20service,synthesize%20natural%20
sounding%20human%20speech.

 

QUESTION 12
Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements?
A. Amazon EBS
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon ECS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
What does the AWS Simple Monthly Calculator do?
A. Compares on-premises costs to colocation environments
B. Estimates monthly billing based on projected usage
C. Estimates power consumption at existing data centers
D. Estimates CPU utilization
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/estimate-your-c/

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QUESTION 1
The IPsec protocol suite is made up of various components covering aspects such as confidentiality, encryption, and
integrity.
Select the correct statement below regarding the correct configuration options to ensure IPsec confidentiality:
A. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, MD5
B. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, AES
C. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA
D. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, MD5
E. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA
Correct Answer: B
Answer A is incorrect – as MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity) Answer C is incorrect – as PSK is short for PreShared Keys (key exchange) – and again MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity) Answer D is incorrect – as both MD5
and SHA are hashing protocols (data integrity) Answer E is incorrect – as both PSK and RSA are used for key
exchanges This leaves Answer B is the only correct IPsec configuration covering confidentiality. DES, 3DES, and AES
are all encryption protocols.
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPsec

 

QUESTION 2
You have configured a dynamic VPN between your datacenter and your VPC. Your router says the tunnel is up and
BGP is active, but for some reason, you are not seeing your routes propagate. What is most likely the issue?
A. You need to configure the firewall for BGP.
B. Your router does not support BFD.
C. You need to obtain a new BGP MD5 key.
D. You forgot to set route propagation to “yes” in the routeing table.
Correct Answer: D
You forgot to set route propagation to “yes” in the routeing table. If the routeing table says BGP is active and the tunnel is up,
then you do not have a firewall issue. BFD has nothing to do with route propagation. You do not need a BGP MD5 key
for VPN.

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following physical layer standards is required for connection to AWS Direct Connect over a standard 1
gigabit or 10 gigabit Ethernet fiber-optic cable?
A. Single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-ER for 10 gigabit Ethernet
B. Multimode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-ER for 10 gigabit Ethernet
C. Single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-LR for 10 gigabit Ethernet
D. Multimode fiber, 1000BASE-SX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-SR for 10 gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: C
Connections to AWS Direct Connect require single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX (1310nm) for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or
10GBASE-LR (1310nm) for 10 gigabit Ethernet. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/Welcome.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are two reasons to have multiple IP addresses or interfaces on one server? (Choose two.)
A. You can host multiple SSLs
B. Create management networks
C. Direct Connect connections
D. Teaming multiple NICs for more throughput
Correct Answer: AB
You cannot bind multiple interfaces for faster speeds on AWS

 

QUESTION 5
Your company runs an application for the US market in the us-east-1 AWS region. This application uses proprietary
TCP and UDP protocols on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances. End users run a real-time, front-end
application on their local PCs. This front-end application knows the DNS hostname of the service.
You must prepare the system for global expansion. The end users must access the application with the lowest latency.
How should you use AWS services to meet these requirements?
A. Register the IP addresses of the service hosts as “A” records with latency-based routing policy in Amazon Route 53,
and set a Route 53 health check for these hosts.
B. Set the Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancer in front of the hosts of the service, and register the ELB name of
the main service host as an ALIAS record with a latency-based routing policy in Route 53.
C. Set Amazon CloudFront in front of the host of the service, and register the CloudFront name of the main service as
an ALIAS record in Route 53.
D. Set the Amazon API gateway in front of the service, and register the API gateway name of the main service as an
ALIAS record in Route 53.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
What two items are required for all AWS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Private Gateway
B. ASN
C. A hardware router
D. Customer Gateway
Correct Answer: AD
An ASN is only required for dynamic VPNs and hardware routers are not required.

 

QUESTION 7
A team implements a highly available solution using Amazon AppStream 2.0. The AppStream 2.0 fleet needs to
communicate with resources both in an existing VPC and on-premises. The VPC is connected to the on-premises
environment using an AWS Direct Connect private virtual interface.
What implementation enables on-premises users to connect to AppStream and existing VPC resources?
A. Deploy two subnets into the existing VPC. Add a public virtual interface to the Direct Connect connection for users to
access the AppStream endpoint
B. Deploy two subnets into the existing VPC. Add a private virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection for users
to access the AppStream endpoint.
C. Deploy a new VPC with two subnets. Create a VPC peering connection between the two VPCs for users to access
the AppStream endpoint.
D. Deploy one subnet into the existing VPC. Add a private virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection for users to
access the AppStream endpoint.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
An organization wants to process sensitive information using the Amazon EMR service. The information is stored in onpremises databases. The output of processing will be encrypted using AWS KMS before it is uploaded to a customer-owned Amazon S3 bucket. The current configuration includes a VPS with public and private subnets, with VPN
connectivity to the on-premises network. The security organization does not allow Amazon EC2 instances to run in the
public subnet.
What is the MOST simple and secure architecture that will achieve the organization\\’s goal?
A. Use the existing VPC and configure Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3 endpoint.
B. Use the existing VPS and a NAT gateway and configure Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3
endpoint.
C. Create a new VPS without an IGW and configure the VPN and Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3
endpoint.
D. Create a new VPS without an IGW and configure the VPN and Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3
endpoint and a NAT gateway.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
An organization has three AWS accounts with each containing VPCs in Virginia, Canada, and the Sydney regions. The
organization wants to determine whether all available Elastic IP addresses (EIPs) in these accounts are attached to
Amazon EC2 instances or in use elastic network interfaces (ENIs) in all of the specified regions for compliance and costoptimization purposes.
Which of the following meets the requirements with the LEAST management overhead?
A. Use an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule to schedule an AWS Lambda function in each account in all three regions
to find the unattached and unused EIPs.
B. Use a CloudWatch event bus to schedule Lambda functions in each account in all three regions to find the
unattached and unused EIPs.
C. Add an AWS managed, EIP-attached AWS Config rule in each region in all three accounts to find unattached and
unused EIPs.
D. Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets to deploy an AWS Config EIP-attached rule in all accounts and regions to find
the unattached and unused EIPs.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Your organization has a newly installed 1-Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection. You order the cross-connect from the
Direct Connect location provider to the port on your router in the same facility. To enable the use of your first virtual
interface, your router must be configured appropriately.
What are the minimum requirements for your router?
A. 1-Gbps Multi-Mode Fiber Interface, 802.1Q VLAN, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5.
B. 1-Gbps Single-Mode Fiber Interface, 802.1Q VLAN, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5.
C. IPsec Parameters, Pre-Shared key, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5
D. BGP Session with MD5, 802.1Q VLAN, Route-Map, Prefix List, IPsec encrypted GRE Tunnel
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
To allow all traffic to access an instance in “Subnet 1” that uses “Security Group 1”, what two options need to be
configured? (Choose two.)
A. NACL rule allowing 0.0.0.0/0 to access “Subnet 1”
B. Security Group rule in “Security Group 1” that allows 0.0.0.0/0 inbound
C. Security Group rule in “Security Group 1” that allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0
D. NACL rule allowing 0.0.0.0/0 to access “Security Group 1”
Correct Answer: AB
You must allow traffic through the NaCl and through the Security Group to access the instance. If there is not an
Outbound allows setup in the NaCl, you may need to set that, but an outbound rule for Security Group 1 is not
necessary as security groups are stateful.

 

QUESTION 12
Your company just deployed a WAF to protect its resources. You need to create a baseline before you start blocking
traffic. How will you achieve this?
A. Set the WAF to Monitor mode.
B. Set the WAF to its defaults and let it do its job.
C. Setup a Lambda function to monitor Flow Logs and analyze the traffic using Elasticsearch.
D. A WAF is default deny and does not allow this. You need to use an IDS instead.
Correct Answer: A
Monitor mode is the only good choice.

 

QUESTION 13
What are two routing methods used by Route 53? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. Failover
C. Latency
D. AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BC
RIP is used for network routing and AS_PATH is used for BGP path manipulation.

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Microsoft 98-366 Practice testing questions from Youtube

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network?
A. Number of hosts connected to the network
B. Number of domain servers on the segment
C. Maximum speed of the media
D. Topology and protocols
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
One purpose of a perimeter network is to:
A. Make resources available to the intranet.
B. Link campus area networks (CANs).
C. Link local area networks (LANs).
D. Make resources available to the Internet.
Correct Answer: D
In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or
logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization\\’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted
network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization\\’s local
area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other
part of the network.

 

QUESTION 3
What type of DNS resource record maps an IP address to a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. AAAA
D. A
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which protocol can be used to encrypt packets on the Internet?
A. SNMP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, makes it more difficult for hackers, the NSA, and others to
track users. The protocol makes sure the data isn\\’t being transmitted in plain-text format, which is much easier to
eavesdrop on.

 

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
IPSec policies for two machines on a LAN can be modified by using the “IPSec policy snap-in” on Windows 7.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select \\’ No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in
B. LAN adapter properties
C. Remote Access snap-in
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security is an advanced interface for IT professionals to use to configure both
Windows Firewall and Internet Protocol security (IPsec) settings for the computers on their networks. Applies To:
Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Vista Reference: Windows Firewall with
Advanced Security and IPsec

 

QUESTION 6
The maximum throughput of an 802.llg network is:
A. 2.4 GHz.
B. 54 GHz.
C. 2.4 Mbps
D. 54 Mbps.
Correct Answer: D
The 802.11g standard for wireless networking supports a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps.

 

QUESTION 7
The service that resolves fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses is:
A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).
B. Domain Name Service (DNS).
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Correct Answer: B
The DNS translates Internet domain and host names to IP addresses. DNS automatically converts the names we type in
our Web browser address bar to the IP addresses of Web servers hosting those sites.

 

QUESTION 8
You receive a call from a family member who is unable to connect to a game server.
You learn that the server\\’s IP is 172.16.2.11.
To help, you ping the server and receive the information shown in the following image:
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.lead4pass 98-366 exam questions q8

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QUESTION 9
The function of a router is to:
A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts.
B. Forward traffic to other networks.
C. Broadcast routing tables to clients.
D. Store tables for name resolution.
Correct Answer: B
A router is a device that forwards data packets along with networks. A router is connected to at least two networks,
commonly two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its ISP\\’s network. Routers are located at gateways, the places where two
or more networks connect.

 

QUESTION 10
Which connectivity option for wide area networks (WANs) is most readily available in most geographic areas?
A. Leased line
B. ISDN
C. T1
D. Dial-up
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: D
VLANs provide the following advantages:
*
VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
*
VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
*
Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not
intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot
communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
A. IPCONFIG
B. ROUTE
C. PING
D. CHECK
Correct Answer: C
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol
(IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

 

QUESTION 13
Match the IPv4 address type to the corresponding definition.
To answer, drag the appropriate definition from the column on the left to the address type on the right. Each definition
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
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QUESTION 1
You need to create a custom visualization for Power BI. What should you install first?
A. jQuery
B. Node.js
C. Microsoft Azure PowerShell
D. Microsoft.NET
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-custom-visuals-getting-started-with-developer-tools

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that will retrieve data from a tabular database in Microsoft SQL
Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization.
The Analysis Services database has a DirectQuery connection to the SQL Server database that contains the source
data.
You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard.
How should you configure the connection to the data source?
A. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the Connect live option.
B. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data
Connectivity mode.
C. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode.
D. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the Connect live option.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to embed multiple visualizations on a public website.
Your Power BI infrastructure contains the visualizations configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q3

Which two visualizations can you embed into the website? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Visual1
B. Visual2
C. Visual3
D. Visual4
E. Visual5
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-publish-to-web

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several
Power View sheets.
You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power BI service.
Solution: From the Power BI service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Import.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

 

QUESTION 5
You have the datasets shown in the following graphic.lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. Note: Each selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q5-1

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-real-time-streaming http://radacad.com/integrate-power-bi-into-yourapplication-part-6-real-time-streaming-andpush-data


QUESTION 6

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a user named User!. User1 is a member of a security group named Contoso PowerB1.
User1 has access to a workspace named Contoso Workspace.
You need to prevent User1 from exporting data from the visualizations in Contoso Workspace.
Solution: From the Power B1 Admin portal, you modify the Tenant settings.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Sales.
Your company has 1,000 sales users. All sales users can access Sales.
You create a report in an app workspace in the Power BI service. You embed the report into a page on the Sales site by
using the Power BI web part.
You need to ensure that all the sales can view the report from the Sales site.
What should you do?
A. Configure the app workspace for Premium capacity.
B. Enable anonymous access for the Sales site.
C. Configure the Portal Site Connection for the Sales site.
D. Disable the Embed content in the apps setting from the Tenant settings in Power BI.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo


QUESTION 8
You have the visualization shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q8

What should you do?
A. Create a calculated column that adds the % symbol to the values.
B. From the Modeling tab, change the Data Type to Percentage.
C. Edit the query of the data source and change the Data Type to Percentage.
D. Create a measure that adds the % symbol to the values,
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
You are importing sales data from a Microsoft Excel file named Sales.xlsx into Power BI Desktop.
You need to create a bar chart showing the total sales amount by region.
When you create the bar chart, the regions appear as expected, but the sales amount value displays the count of sales
amount instead of the sum of the sales amount in each region.
You need to modify the query to ensure that the data appears correctly.
What should you do?
A. Delete the query, import the data into Microsoft SQL Server, and then import the data from SQL Server.
B. In Query Editor, add a calculated column that totals the sales amount column.
C. Change the Data Type of sales amount column to Numeric.
D. Refresh the data model.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column.
You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn.
How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q10-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/text-replace https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquerym/text-end

 

QUESTION 11
You have a Power BI model that has the following tables:
1.
Product (Product_id, Product_Name)
2.
Sales (Order_id, Order_Date, Product_id, Salesperson_id, Sales_Amount)
3.Salesperson (Salesperson_id, Salesperson_name, address)
You plan to create the following measure.
Measure1 = DISTINCTCOUNT(Sales[ProductID])
You need to create the following relationships:
1.
Sales to Product
2.
Sales to Salesperson
The solution must ensure that you can use Measure1 to display the count of products sold by each salesperson.
How should you configure the relationships? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
From Power BI Desktop, you create a query that imports the following table.lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q12

What should you do?
A. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters.
B. From the Extract menu, click Text After Delimiter.
C. From the Format menu, click Trim.
D. From the Split Column menu, click BY Delimiter.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt798301.aspx

 

QUESTION 13
You have a column named phone_number. The values in the columns are in one of the following formats:
999-999-9999×123
1-999-999-9999×232
+1-999-999-9999x66x666
The values after x in the phone-number column indicate the phone extension.
You need to create a custom column in Query Editor that contains only the phone extensions.
How should you complete the query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-778 exam questions q13-1

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QUESTION 1
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is
necessary in the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS
ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type
must be selected?
A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4
What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?
A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.
B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby
mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode
provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number
into a localized format?
A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7
An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?
A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?
A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled disconnect a multiparty call when
the call initiator hangs up?
A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two
messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PRACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is
necessary to enable MGCP?
A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

 

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

 

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

 

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

 

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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Braindump4it Exam Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 300-515 google drive

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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROPlead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

 

QUESTION 5lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

 

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.

Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.

Skills measured

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
  • Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
  • Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
  • Implement High Availability (30-35%)
  • Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Latest Updates Microsoft 70-740 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

You have a stretch cluster that contains four nodes.
You run Get-ClusterFaultDomain and receive the output shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab).

braindump4it 70-740 q1

Node1 and Node2 are in a data center in an Active Directory site named London_Site. Node3 and Node4 are in an
Active Directory site named Berlin_Site.
You need to ensure that the active nodes are in London_Site unless both Node1 and Node2 are offline.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q1-1

References: https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Failover-Clustering/Site-aware-Failover-Clusters-in-WindowsServer-2016/ba-p/372060

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click
Operations Master.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

This solution only shows the domain FSMO roles, not the forest FSMO roles.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role and Docker
installed.
You pull the Microsoft/IIS Docker image to Server1.
You need to view the available space in the Microsoft/IIS Docker image.
Solution: You run the following commands.
docker run -name container1 -d Microsoft/IIS docker exec -I container1 cmd.exe dir
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/commandline/container_exec/#options https://www.windowscommandline.com/get-file-size-directory-size-command/

QUESTION 4

You are preparing an image of Windows Server 2016.
The image is missing the driver for a network adapter that is required in your environment.
You need to ensure that the image contains the network adapter driver.
Which three cmdlets should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the? answer area and arrange them m the correct order.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 70-740 q4

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q4-1

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that has two network adapters.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q5

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q5-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/create-a-new-nicteam-on-a-host-computer-or-vm https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/netlbfo/new-netlbfoteam?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 6

You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that is in a Running state.
On Server1, you export VM1 and then you import VM1 on Server2.
What is the current state of VM1 on Server2?
A. Paused
B. Off
C. Saved
D. Running

Correct Answer: C

References: https://blog.workinghardinit.work/2016/06/16/live-export-a-running-virtual-machine-or-a-checkpoint/

QUESTION 7

Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you
can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server. Which type of virtual
network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well as any network traffic between the
management operating system and the external network.
A. Private virtual network
B. Internal virtual network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q8

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q8-1

QUESTION 9

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy the first node cluster of a Network Controller cluster.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 70-740 q9

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 70-740 q9-1

Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10
domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. You run the Active Directory Domain
Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.

QUESTION 10

You have a Hyper-V cluster that uses Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). The cluster contains 20 virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a single disk.
You create a storage QoS policy that sets the minimum IOPS to 100 and the maximum IOPS to 200.
You need to ensure that the storage traffic of each virtual machine complies with the storage QoS policy.
What should you run?
A. Set-VMHardDiskDrive
B. Set-VM
C. Set-VMHost
D. Set-VHD

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/hyper-v/set-vmharddiskdrive?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 11

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016
and is configured as shown in the following table.

braindump4it 70-740 q11

You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is
running. What should you do?
A. Disable Dynamic Memory
B. Enable Integration Services
C. Upgrade the configuration version

Correct Answer: A

References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hot-add-remove-memory-hyper-v-2016/

QUESTION 12

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice maybe
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named
Cluster1 As virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1 You need to configure monitoring of VM1 The solution must
move VM1 to a different node if the Print Spooler service on VM1 stops unexpectedly Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management console
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management console
F. the Failover Cluster Manager console
G. the Hyper-V Manager console
H. the Server Manager Desktop app

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 13

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server

Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named
VM1.
Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3 and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2.
The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

braindump4it 70-740 q13

VM1 is stored in C:\ClusterStorage\Volume1.
You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

braindump4it 70-740 q13-1

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This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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