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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.

Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?

Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?

A. shared tree

B. MDT default

C. source tree

D. MDT voice

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?

A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.

B. The two routers have the same area ID.

C. The two routers have the same network ID.

D. The two routers have different IS-types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.

B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds

C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds

D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.

Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?

A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command

B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route

C. Filter the routes on the receiving router

D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.

Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?

A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets

B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?

A. shortest path calculated by IGP

B. dynamic rules

C. path policy

D. explicit maps

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?

A. The two devices have different process IDs

B. The two devices have different network types

C. The two devices have different router IDs

D. The two devices have the same area ID

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

A. type 3 LSA

B. type 4 LSA

C. type 1 LSA

D. type 2 LSA

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?

A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally

B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process

C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process

D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?

A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path

B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis

C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path

D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network

Correct Answer: C

……

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Lead4Pass has updated Cisco 350-801 dumps issues! The latest 350-801 exam questions can help you pass the exam! All questions are corrected
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Cisco 350-801 Practice testing questions from Youtbe

Braindump4it Exam Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 350-801 google drive

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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE

 

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers

Share Cisco 350-801 exam questions for free

QUESTION 1:

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4:

What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5:

Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6:

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7:

An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8:

Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10:

lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE

Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11:

How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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Latest updated CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber ​​Security (CASP+)

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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.

[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application.
Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

A. Software decompiler
B. Network enumerator
C. Log reduction and analysis tool
D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:

A. cloning disks.
B. analyzing network-captured packets.
C. recovering lost files.
D. extracting features such as email addresses.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?

A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets.
B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources.
C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed.
D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
B. Implement certificate-based authentication.
C. Verify MD5 hashes.
D. Compress the program with a password.
E. Encrypt with 3DES.
F. Make the DACL read-only.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
B. a zero-day attack.
C. an advanced persistent threat.
D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers

CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test

CAS-004 Q1:

A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:

cas-004 q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?

A. SQL injection
B. XSS scanning
C. Fuzzing
D. Brute forcing

CAS-004 Q2:

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.

The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.

CAS-004 Q3:

Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:

cas-004 q3

A. Log reduction
B. Network enumerator
C. Fuzzer
D. SCAP scanner

CAS-004 Q4:

An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:

cas-004 q4

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist.
B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS.
C. Wrap the application before deployment.
D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.

CAS-004 Q5:

A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?

A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.

A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.

CAS-004 Q6:

A technician is reviewing the following log:

cas-004 q6

Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?

A. NIPS
B. DLP
C. NGFW
D. SIEM

CAS-004 Q7:

To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions.
Which of the following approaches is described?

A. Blue team
B. Red team
C. Black box
D. White team

CAS-004 Q8:

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

CAS-004 Q9:

During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’.
B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.

Reference: https://docs.rapid7.com/insightvm/elevating-permissions/

CAS-004 Q10:

Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?

A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure.
Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.

CAS-004 Q11:

An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

A. $0
B. $7,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $15,000

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

CAS-004 Q12:

A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network.
Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?

A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing.
B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media.
C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack.
D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.

Verify the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
AADBABCACCBBB

[Updated 2022.7]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gPzIc5NxyzqTe5jbFzvmofpUGr5d4CUr/

PS. 12-track CAS-004 exam PDF free download:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1mL0JwT4wlXDPb53aND7soRSLSfs6fGKd/view?usp=sharing

Complete CAS-004 Dumps Latest Update Feb 2022:https://www.lead4pass.com/cas-004.html (Total Questions: 255 Q&A) [Updated 2022.7] Total Questions: 267 Q&A. Participate in the full exam program and pass the exam 100% successfully.

[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 exam practice questions and success secrets

Is it really hard to pass the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 exam?

That’s right! Passing the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 exam is not an easy task!

Therefore, I recommend that you use the latest updated Cisco 200-901 Dumps practice questions to help you pass the 200-901 DEVASC certification exam: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html

Cisco 200-901 dumps Exam Questions Develop valid exam questions and answers around the 200-901 DEVASC certification core:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability

Braindump4it shares the latest Cisco 200-901 exam pdf, 200-901 exam practice questions, and the latest questions to help you improve your exam pass rate!

We prepared the Cisco 200-901’s highest exam pass secret, 200-901 Dumps. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html ( The ultimate key.)
The latest and most complete Cisco 200-901 exam dumps.

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200-901 DEVASC – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devasc-200-901.html

This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

……

[Updated 2022] Get Complete Free Cisco 200-901 Exam Questions and Answers

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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SY0-601 dumps [Updated 2022] Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ exam

CompTIA Security plus 2022

SY0-601 dumps have been updated to prepare for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam.

Prepare for the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam Choose Lead4Pass, a reliable IT certification provider, you just need to download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-601.html, guaranteeing you a successful first attempt to pass the target exam.

Because Lead4Pass sy0-601 dumps have a long-term good reputation from 2016 to now, it can help candidates truly pass the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam. So you just need to practice sy0-601 dumps to ensure that you pass the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam 100%.

You can also practice some sy0-601 dumps questions online first:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string Which of the following would be the BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A. head
B. Tcpdump
C. grep
D. rail
E. curl
F. openssi
G. dd

QUESTION 2:

The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST address this security concern?

A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.
B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental system’s network.

QUESTION 3:

Users at organizations have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized programs. However, some users have administrative access to their workstations to enable legacy programs to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address this issue?

A. Application code signing
B. Application whitelisting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

QUESTION 4:

A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

QUESTION 5:

A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive
C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

QUESTION 6:

A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users\’ passwords.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

QUESTION 7:

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

QUESTION 8:

A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the access point to improve security.
Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)

A. RADIUS
B. PEAP
C. WPS
D. WEP-TKIP
E. SSL
F. WPA2-PSK

QUESTION 9:

A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

QUESTION 10:

A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed order processing.
The business owner now needs to ensure two things:
1.
Protection from power outages
2.
Always-available connectivity In case of an outage
The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following would BEST fulfill the owner\’s second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.
B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability
D. Replace the business\’s wired network with a wireless network.

QUESTION 11:

An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leaves the organization. Which of the following will be the organization MOST likely to implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

QUESTION 12:

Given the following logs:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?

A. Rainbow table
B. Dictionary
C. Password spraying
D. Pass-the-hash

QUESTION 13:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations.
Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice
B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding

……

Publish the answer:

Number:Answers:Explain:
Q1ACA – “analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly” C – “search the entire series of requests for a particular string”
Q2D
Q3BApplication whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/application-whitelisting
Q4A
Q5D
Q6C
Q7B
Q8AF
Q9B
Q10C
Q11B
Q12C
Q13A

[Google Drive] Download the sy0-601 dumps question and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_ij2vKQ_V5lWRMAfyPhC_vzDXyIPfzHI/

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam has undergone many changes, SY0-101, SY0-201, SY0-301, SY0-401, SY0-501 to now SY0-601, no matter when you use Lead4Pass
Dumps materials are available to help you successfully pass the objective exam. To pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam today, just download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-601.html and make sure you pass the exam 100%.

Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications | Provide learning materials

Whether you are a novice or an exam candidate, you can use this article as your learning object, I will share the most popular online complete knowledge and learning materials.

With the advancement of society, the online world has become more and more complex, various network security problems have arisen, and the opportunities for bad actors to steal, damage or destroy are also increasing. The increase in cybercrime is driving the demand for cybersecurity professionals.
The job outlook for studying cybersecurity has grown accordingly.

Do you know that there is a lot of network security knowledge in this world, if you are a novice, you will be confused about how to choose. Below I will share a picture of the most popular network security certification in the world, if you don’t know how to do it, then choose the most popular, This is definitely not wrong.

The following table shows more than 300 different cybersecurity certifications searched on three popular recruiting sites, LinkedIn, Indeed, and Simply Hired, and these 10 certifications appear the most in total U.S. job listings (The data is from last year and is for reference only.)

source: https://www.coursera.org/articles/popular-cybersecurity-certifications

1.Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Earning a CISSP demonstrates your ability to effectively design, implement, and manage a best-in-class cybersecurity program.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/CISSP

Provide learning materials:

CISSP practice test:examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

2. Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)

Prove your expertise in IS/IT auditing, controls and security and rank among the most qualified in the industry.

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cisa

Provide learning materials:

CISA practice test: examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

3. Certified Information Security Manager (CISM)

ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification demonstrates expertise in information security governance, project development and management, incident management, and risk management.

CISM work practices are valid until 31 May 2022

Updated CISM exam content syllabus effective from 1 June 2022

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cism

Provide learning materials:

CISM practice test: micvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

4. Security+

CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the essential skills required to perform core security functions and pursue a career in IT security.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security

Provide learning materials:

Security+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

5. Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques, and methods that hackers and information security professionals use to break into organizations legally.

https://www.eccouncil.org/programs/certified-ethical-hacker-ceh/

Provide learning materials:

CEH practice test: latestvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

6. GIAC Security Essentials Certification (GSEC)

The GIAC Security Fundamentals (GSEC) certification validates a practitioner’s knowledge of information security, not just simple terms and concepts.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/security-essentials-gsec/

Provide learning materials:

GSEC practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no

7.Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)

Implement, monitor and manage IT infrastructure using security best practices, policies and procedures developed by (ISC)²’s cybersecurity experts.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/SSCP

Provide learning materials:

SSCP practice test: no
PDF download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-HW8f-R1b2-m5l99Y8mUD0U1bP-S_TAE/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

8. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers responsible for leading and improving enterprise cybersecurity readiness.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Provide learning materials:

CASP+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

9. GIAC Certified Incident Handler (GCIH)

The GIAC Incident Handler certification verifies a practitioner’s ability to detect, respond to, and resolve computer security incidents using a broad range of fundamental security skills.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/certified-incident-handler-gcih/

Provide learning materials:

GCIH practice test: no
PDF Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1sBIEb96vghkRmlbD-gLhjigSAw9dHiAi/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: no

10. Offensive Security Certified Professional (OSCP)

Offensive Security’s OSCP has become one of the most sought-after certifications for penetration testers. This exam tests your ability to compromise a range of targeted computers using multiple exploitation steps and generates a detailed penetration test report for each attack.

https://www.offensive-security.com/pwk-oscp/

Provide learning materials:

OSCP practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no
PDF + VCE download: no

Is Cybersecurity Certification Worth It?

A survey by (ISC)² found that 70% of cybersecurity professionals surveyed in the U.S. require employer certification.
According to the same study, security certifications can also lead to big pay raises. The right credentials can also make you more attractive to recruiters and hiring managers alike.

P.s. Latest Updated CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat mode?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”

QUESTION 2:

A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of errors that correlate with users\’ reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rale
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: A

where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within 60 minutes.
Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/rpo-and-rto-understanding-the-differences/

QUESTION 5:

A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?

A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers
B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment
C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?

A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and finally to production systems.

B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then apply them to the production systems

C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a staging environment

D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them in a testing environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).

A. Password and security question
B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8:

A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?

A. inability to authenticate
B. Implied trust
C. Lack of computing power
D. Unavailable patch

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

A. Race condition testing
B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output: Which of the following Is the analyst observing?

A. IGMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

To further secure a company\’s email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the company\’s domain Which of the following is being used?

A. PFS
B. SPF
C. DMARC
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hot-spots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

A. Evil twin
B. Rogue access point
C. On-path attack

Correct Answer: B

……

CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lJ911sJMs1cOPYD3MCKznr89c5s5KTn5/view?usp=sharing

View 572 Exam Questions And Answers

Real Dumps Questions For 220-1002 Exam CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2

The CompTIA 220-1002 exam is related to the CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2,
It tests your operating system installation and configuration, extended security, software troubleshooting, and operating procedures. The new CompTIA 220-1002 dumps questions are real and help you test questions covering the knowledge points and skills tested.
Real dumps questions are online to ensure you can pass the 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2 exam on the first try.

Try to test CompTIA A+ 220-1002 free dumps.

QUESTION 1:

The IT department has installed new software in the folder C:\Program Files\Business Application. Ann, a user, runs the business application and tries to save her work. When doing so, Ann receives the following error:
Cannot save file C: \Program Files\Business Application\file1.wrk ?Access is denied.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure solution to this error?

A. Add Ann to the local Power Users group
B. Set the software to save to the %APPDATA% folder
C. Add Ann to the local administrator group
D. Give Ann write access to C:\Program Files\
E. Give Ann permission to elevate her permissions through a UAC prompt

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2:

A user is unable to open a document on a shared drive from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands would help the user gain access to the document?

A. chmod
B. lfconfig
C. pwd
D. grep

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A technician determines a newly installed service is keeping a device from functioning in Windows. Which of the following tools should the technician use to keep the service from being loaded on the PC reboot?

A. Task Scheduler
B. MSINFO32
C. System Restore
D. MSConfig

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A user lives in a location that experiences frequent lightning storms. Which of the following would be the LEAST expensive solution to protect the user\’s computer hardware?

A. A surge protector
B. Grounding
C. A power generator
D. An uninterruptible power supply

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

During a network server outage, the administrator’s computer received an IP address of 169.254.0.10 and had no access to internal or external resources. Which of the following should be configured to ensure the administrator\’s computer retains network access?

A. Alternative IP address
B. Wake-on-LAN
C. APIPA
D. Proxy setting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A technician installed a new video card into a computer but did not connect the second monitor. When the technician boots the computer, it shows a blue screen during boot and automatically restarts.
The technician is able to boot into safe mode successfully.
Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Install the second monitor.
B. Replace the video card
C. Install updated video drivers.
D. Disable the antivirus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge
B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination
C. Protects against accidental scratches
D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A systems administrator created a policy that should create a shortcut on a user\’s desktop Shortly after the policy was created, a technician inspects the user\’s desktop and notices the shortcut is not present. The administrator verifies that the policy was created correctly and that it is being applied to the user\’s account.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue Immediately without interrupting the user\’s session?

A. gpupdate /force
B. gpupdate /boot
C. gpupdate /logoff
D. gpupdate /target:computer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following operating systems has versions for servers, workstations, and phones?

A. Android
B. iOS
C. Chrome OS
D. Windows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Joe, an end-user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system.
Which of the following authentication methods is being requested?

A. Single-factor
B. Multifactor
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A security director is designing a company\’s disaster recovery procedure. The information security officer wants the servers to continue to function during short power outages, and important documents should be stored off-site in case of a catastrophe at the data center.
Which of the following would BEST fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Power distribution unit
B. UPS
C. Cloud storage
D. Surge protector
E. Local file replication
F. RAID

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12:

Ann, an employee, has been trying to use a company-issued mobile device to access an internal file share while traveling abroad. She restarted the device due to a mobile OS update, but she is now unable to access company information Ann calls the help desk for assistance, and a technician verifies she can make calls and access websites
Which of the following should the technician suggest NEXT to try to fix the issue?

A. Navigate to the VPN profile in the device settings,delete the pre-shared key. and restart the device
B. Instruct Ann to open the company\’s MDM application to ensure proper functionality
C. Navigate to the corporate intranet page and use hyperlinks to access the file share.
D. Instruct Ann to disable TLS 1.0 in the device settings

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following are methods used to prevent an unauthorized computer from establishing a connection as a node on a corporate network? (Select TWO.)

A. Port security
B. Anti-malware
C. Certificate
D. IDS
E. Firewall
F. Captive portal

Correct Answer: AE

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SK0-005 Free dumps to help you learn part

The questions for SK0-005 were last updated on April 23, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 122 questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards
B. Reflective glass
C. Security guards
D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard

QUESTION 2:

A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible

B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested retransmission of the write from the controller

C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly

D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.backblaze.com/blog/what-smart-stats-indicate-hard-drive-failures/

QUESTION 3:

A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 443

Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/ras/manage-remote-clients/install/step-1-configure-the-remote-access-infrastructure

QUESTION 4:

A Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port 514 against the Syslog server. However, the Syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the Syslog server is not responding?

A. The Syslog server is down.
B. Telnet does not work on UDP.
C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514
D. The log is full on the Syslog server.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
C. The local hosts file is blank
D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?

A. SSO
B. LDAP
C. TACACS
D. MFA

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

QUESTION 7:

A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:

A. hardware is UEFI compliant
B. volume is formatted as GPT
C. volume is formatted as MBR
D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?

A. Connect the server to a KVM
B. Use cable management
C. Connect the server to a redundant network
D. Connect the server to a UPS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 53
E. 443
F. 636

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/dns_best_practices

QUESTION 10:

Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

A. Overwrite the backups
B. Clone the configuration
C. Run a restore test
D. Check the media integrity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?

A. Differential
B. Snapshot
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/incremental-backup

QUESTION 12:

A company\’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company\’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?

A. Disable port 389 on the server
B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
D. Enable port 389 for web traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.auditmypc.com/tcp-port-637.asp https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/66908/is-port-389-on-ad-in-anyway-used-or-required- when.html

QUESTION 13:

A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company\’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management\’s priorities? (Choose two.)

A. Differential
B. Synthetic full
C. Archive
D. Full
E. Incremental
F. Open file

Correct Answer: AB

……


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The questions for CS0-002 were last updated on April 24, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-12 out of 769 questions:

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst has received information from a third-party intelligence-sharing resource that indicates employee accounts were breached. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take to address the issue?

A. Audit access permissions for all employees to ensure the least privilege.
B. Force a password reset for the impacted employees and revoke any tokens.
C. Configure SSO to prevent passwords from going outside the local network.
D. Set up privileged access management to ensure auditing is enabled.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

An organization used a third party to conduct a security audit and discovered several deficiencies in the cybersecurity program. The findings noted many external vulnerabilities that were not caught by the vulnerability scanning software, numerous weaknesses that allowed lateral movement, and gaps in monitoring that did not detect the activity of the auditors. Based on these findings, which of the following would be the BEST long-term enhancement to the security program?

A. Quarterly external penetration testing
B. Monthly tabletop scenarios
C. Red-team exercises
D. Audit exercises

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A cybersecurity analyst is supporting an incident response effort via threat intelligence. Which of the following is the analyst MOST likely executing?

A. Requirements analysis and collection planning
B. Containment and eradication
C. Recovery and post-incident review
D. Indicator enrichment and research pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

An analyst is participating in the solution analysis process for a cloud-hosted SIEM platform to centralize log monitoring and alerting capabilities in the SOC. Which of the following is the BEST approach for supply chain assessment when selecting a vendor?

A. Gather information from providers, including data center specifications and copies of audit reports.
B. Identify SLA requirements for monitoring and logging.
C. Consult with senior management for recommendations.
D. Perform a proof of concept to identify possible solutions.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

In web application scanning, static analysis refers to scanning:

A. the system for vulnerabilities before installing the application.
B. the compiled code of the application to detect possible issues.
C. an application that is installed and active on a system.
D. an application that is installed on a system that is assigned a static IP.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/static-analysis-static-code-analysis

QUESTION 6:

During an incident, a cybersecurity analyst found several entries in the web server logs that are related to an IP with a bad reputation. Which of the following would cause the analyst to further review the incident?

A. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /etc/passwd” 403 1023
B. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /index.html?src=../.ssh/id_rsa” 401 17044
C. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=/etc/passwd” 403 11056
D. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=../../.ssh/id_rsa” 200 15036
E. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /favicon.ico?src=../usr/share/ icons” 200 19064

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A company\’s data is still being exfiltered to business competitors after the implementation of a DLP solution. Which of the following is the most likely reason why the data is still being compromised?

A. Printed reports from the database contain sensitive information
B. DRM must be implemented with the DLP solution
C. Users are not labeling the appropriate data sets
D. DLP solutions are only effective when they are implemented with disk encryption

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.vaultize.com/blog/-enterprise-drm-and-dlp-are-amazing-together.html

QUESTION 8:

A large organization wants to move account registration services to the cloud to benefit from faster processing and elasticity. Which of the following should be done FIRST to determine the potential risk to the organization?

A. Establish a recovery time objective and a recovery point objective for the systems being moved
B. Calculate the resource requirements for moving the systems to the cloud
C. Determine recovery priorities for the assets being moved to the cloud-based systems
D. Identify the business processes that will be migrated and the criticality of each one
E. Perform an inventory of the servers that will be moving and assign priority to each one

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following attacks can be prevented by using output encoding?

A. Server-side request forgery
B. Cross-site scripting
C. SQL injection
D. Command injection
E. Cross-site request forgery
F. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

During an investigation, a security analyst determines suspicious activity occurred during the night shift over the weekend. Further investigation reveals the activity was initiated from an internal IP going to an external website. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation to prevent the activity from happening in the future?

A. An IPS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
B. An IDS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
C. A firewall rule that will block port 80 traffic
D. A firewall rule that will block traffic from the specific IP addresses

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) for a large manufacturing organization has noticed a significant number of unknown devices with possible malware infections are on the organization\’s corporate network. Which of the following would work BEST to prevent the issue?

A. Reconfigure the NAC solution to prevent access based on a full device profile and ensure antivirus is installed.
B. Segment the network to isolate all systems that contain highly sensitive information, such as intellectual property.
C. Implement certificate validation on the VPN to ensure only employees with the certificate can access the company network.
D. Update the antivirus configuration to enable behavioral and real-time analysis on all systems within the network.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

A development team is testing a new application release. The team needs to import existing client PHI data records from the production environment to the test environment to test accuracy and functionality. Which of the following would BEST protect the sensitivity of this data while still allowing the team to perform the testing?

A. Deidentification
B. Encoding
C. Encryption
D. Watermarking

Correct Answer: A

……


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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-900

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are
provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling
or purchasing cloud based solutions and services, or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services,
as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational-level knowledge around cloud services.
Technical IT experience is not required, however, some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

Skills measured

  • The content of this exam will be updated on May 28, 2020. NOTE: the updates that were announced prior to April 15, 2020 will be implemented on September 15, 2020. The updates now planned for May 28 are minor updates to wording; please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing on May 28.
  • Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
  • Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
  • Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
  • Understand Azure pricing and support (20-25%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Authorization is the process of verifying a user\\’s credentials.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Authentication
C. Federation
D. Ticketing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to cloud infrastructure and for implementing
consistency across the Azure environment.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Resource groups provide
C. Azure Resource Manager provides
D. Management groups provide
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company plans to deploy an Artificial Intelligence (AI) solution in Azure.
What should the company use to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics solutions?
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Machine Learning Studio
C. Azure Batch
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to store 20 TB of data in Azure. The data will be accessed infrequently and visualized by using Microsoft
Power BI.
You need to recommend a storage solution for the data.
Which two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Data Lake
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
D. Azure SQL Database
E. Azure Database for PostgreSQL
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You plan to migrate several servers from an on-premises network to Azure.
You need to identify the primary benefit of using a public cloud service for the servers.
What should you identify?
A. The public cloud is owned by the public, NOT a private corporation
B. The public cloud is a crowd-sourcing solution that provides corporations with the ability to enhance the cloud
C. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member of the public
D. The public cloud is a shared entity whereby multiple corporations each use a portion of the resources in the cloud
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
All Azure services that are in public preview are provided without any documentation.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. only configurable from Azure CLI
C. excluded from the Service Level Agreements
D. only configurable from the Azure portal
Correct Answer: C
Preview features are made available to you on the condition that you accept additional terms which supplement the
regular Azure terms. The supplemental terms state:
“PREVIEWS ARE PROVIDED “AS-IS,” “WITH ALL FAULTS,” AND “AS AVAILABLE,” AND ARE EXCLUDED FROM
THE SERVICE LEVEL AGREEMENTS AND LIMITED WARRANTY.”
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/preview-supplemental-terms/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group
named RG1.
From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1.
az VM create –resource-group RG1 –name VM1 — image
UbuntuLTS –generate-ssh-keys
You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command.
Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From PowerShell, sign in to Azure and then run the
command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is required to use Azure Cost Management?
A. a Dev/Test subscription
B. Software Assurance
C. an Enterprise Agreement (EA)
D. a pay-as-you-go subscription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/cost-management/overview-cost-mgt

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
You plan to implement an Azure database solution.
You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements:
Can add data concurrently from multiple regions
Can store JSON documents
Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
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Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator
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QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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