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What is the best way to pass the RedHat EX300 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass RedHat expert.) You can get free RedHat RHCE certification EX300 exam practice test questions here.
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RedHat RHCE certification EX300 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest RedHat RHCE certification EX300 google drive

[PDF] Free RedHat RHCE certification EX300 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1eR3fJCpFXYoqH9dbkH5yg_C9Ewk3_BUI

Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7:https://www.redhat.com/en/services/training/ex300-red-hat-certified-engineer-rhce-exam-red-hat-enterprise-linux-7

The performance-based Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 (EX300) tests to determine if your knowledge, skill, and ability meet those required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat® Enterprise Linux® systems. Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA®) certification is required to earn RHCE® certification.

This exam and the exam objectives provided here are based on the Red
 Hat Enterprise Linux 7 version of the exam.

An RHCE certification is earned by a Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) who has demonstrated the knowledge, skill, and ability required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat Enterprise Linux systems.

Latest updates RedHat EX300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

SIMULATION 

Configure the nfs server, share the /common directory to domain30.example.com, and allow client to have the root user

right when access as a root user. 

A. explanation 

Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here Webpage content modification. Implement website for http://serverX.example.com/owndir Create a
directory named as “owndir” under the document root of webserver Download
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/rhce/restrict.html Rename the file into ondex.html The content of the owndir
should be visible to everyone browsing from your local system but should not be accessible from other location
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure selinux.
Configure your systems that should be running in Enforcing.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here SMTP Configuration. Configure the SMTP mail service on serverX and desktopX which relay the mail
only from local system through station.network0.example.com, all outgoing mail have their sender domain as
example.com. Ensure that mail should not store locally. Verify the mail server is working by sending mail to a natasha
user. Check the mail on both serverX and desktopX with the below URL http://station.network0.example.com/system1
http://station.network0.example.com/system2
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q4

 

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You are working as an Administrator. There is a common data shared (/data) from 192.168.0.254 to all users in your
local LAN. When user\\’s system start, shared data should automatically mount on /common directory.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
To automatically mount at boot time, we use the /etc/fstab file. Because /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit file reads and mounts all file
system specified in /etc/fstab. To mount Network Sharing Files also use the /etc/fstab but filesystem is nfs.lead4pass ex300 exam question q5

 

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Script1.
Create a script on serverX called /root/random with the following details
When run as /root/random postconf, should bring the output as “postroll”
When run as /root/random postroll, should bring the output as “postconf”
When run with any other argument or without argument, should bring any other argument or without argument, should
bring the stderr as “/root/random postconf|postroll”
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q7

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure NFS service
Configure the NFS service on the system1, as required:
1.
Share the directory /public in read only way, just can be accessed by systems in domain11.example.com at the same
time.
2.
Share the directory /protected in rad and write way, Kerberos security encryption required, you can use the key
provided by the following URL: http://host.domain11.example.com/materials/nfs_server.keytab
3.
The directory /protected should contain the sub directory named project and the owner name is deepak;
4.
User deepak can access /protected/project in read and write ways
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
system1:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass ex300 exam question q8

SIMULATION
Download file from http://ip/dir/restircted.html, and the local user harry can access it by
http://station.domain30.example.com/restircted.html, and cannot be accessed by t3gg.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10
The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0
Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are
all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q9

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be
able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using
virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link:
http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org
domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient
identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Database Query
Use database Contacts on the system1, and use the corresponding SQL to search and answer the following questions:
1.
What\\’s the person name whose password is solicitous?
2.
How many people\\’s names are John and live is Shanghai at the same time?
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q10

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score. You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be
accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems
of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure IPV6 Address
Configure interface eth0 on your test system, using the following IPV6 addresses: 1) The address of system1 should be
2003:ac18::305/64
(2)
The address of system2 should be 2003:ac18::30a/64
(3)
Both two systems must be able to communicate with systems in network 2003:ac18/64 (4) The address must still take
effect after restart
(5)
Both two systems must maintain the current Ipv4 address and can communicate
A.
explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11lead4pass ex300 exam question q11

SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure NFS mount.
Mount /nfsshare directory on desktopX under /public directory persistently at system boot time.
Mount /nfssecure/protected with krb5p secured share on desktopX beneath /secure/protected provided with keytab
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/
keytabs/desktopX.keytab
The user harry is able to write files on /secure directory
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-1

Verification from DesktopX:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-2

 

QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
Configure the web server, which can be accessed by http://station.domain30.example.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q12

 

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q13

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Cisco 210-065 exam questions, 210-065 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)” Exam 210-065. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-065 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-065 exam: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of and skills to implement various Cisco Video endpoints in converged Cisco video infrastructures. It also tests a candidate’s ability to implement and troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communication and Collaboration, TelePresence, and Digital Media Player in different Cisco business video solution architectures. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam.

Watch the Cisco 210-065 video tutorial online

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 210-065 pdf

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210-060 CICD – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/civnd.html

Free Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. bursty
Correct Answer: CDEG

 

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid high-contrast elements
C. Use earth tone paint colors
D. Avoid plants or decorations
E. Use glossy finishes
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/cts_3010/assembly_guide/3010_assembly_guide/3010_room_recommendations.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco DMS component is used for content recording?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco TCS
C. Cisco DMM
D. Cisco DMP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a
Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the
local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/profile-series/tc6/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc60.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which two fields must be configured for a Cisco TelePresence device to connect to a Phonebook source? (Choose
two.)
A. Phonebook Server > URL
B. Phonebook Server > Type
C. Phonebook Server > Provisioning
D. Phonebook Server > Phonebook
E. Phonebook Server > Host
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which three features does a Cisco TelePresence Content Server provide that a Cisco MCU cannot? (Choose three.)
A. conference bridge virtualization support
B. multiple conference layouts
C. resource optimization via conductor
D. 720p resolution at 60 fps
E. 1080p resolution at 60 fps
F. multiscreen immersive room endpoint support
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 7
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias > Template > Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > Template
C. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > H.323 > Template
D. Recording Alias > Workflow > Template > Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: Dlead4pass 210-065 exam question q8

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/mx-series/tc7/administration-guide/mx700-mx800-administrator-guide-tc72.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Manager
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server
Correct Answer: AC
Features and Benefits
Benefits of Cisco TMS include:
Scalable provisioning: Cisco TMS can support rapid, large-scale deployments of up to 100,000 Cisco TelePresence
users, endpoints, and soft clients across disparate customer locations, including up to 5,000 direct-managed devices.
Centralized administration: Cisco TMS automates and simplifies the management of Cisco Telepresence meetings and
Cisco Telepresence infrastructure resources, reducing your total cost of ownership (TCO). Flexible scheduling: Cisco
TMS makes scheduling Cisco Telepresence meetings more accessible with a range of tools including a simple and
intuitive Smart Scheduler option, extensions for Microsoft Exchange integration, and advanced booking capabilities for
experienced administrators.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which conference types can occur at any time without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created
as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Correct Answer: E
Rendezvous conferences (also called meet-me, static, or permanent conferences) require endpoints to dial in to a
predetermined multipoint resource. These multipoint resources are shared by a number of endpoints and are capable of
hosting many conferences at the same time. Because a dedicated device is used to host rendezvous conferences,
these conferences can have many more participants than multisite conferences (but not necessarily more than an ad-
hoc conference on a dedicated multipoint device).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/confernc.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features are supported by the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server? (Choose two.)
A. motion detection
B. clustering
C. IP and analog cameras
D. MPEG-2 and MPEG-4 encoding
E. virtual matrix
Correct Answer: AC
Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server features include:
Flexibility to use a broad array of analog cameras and IP cameras
Simultaneous MJPEG and MPEG-4 encoding
Low-latency video with high-quality images
CIF, 2CIF, and 4CIF, up to 30 fps
PTZ and alarm inputs
Motion detection
Scalable deployment with multiple sites, cameras, users, and storage
Archives at different frame rate, duration, and location
Efficient redundant multi-site archiving that conserves bandwidth
Loop-and event-tagged video recording and event export (video clip) capabilities
Ability to connect to external storage
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/28981/cisco-video-surveillance-encoding-server

 

QUESTION 12
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for
TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber
registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence
capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in
the same network.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which function does a Cisco TCS recording alias perform?
A. It links recorded media to a specified output location.
B. It provides a dialable alias that will trigger a TCS recording workflow.
C. It sends media to Cisco Medianet.
D. It provides an alias for the recorded filename.
Correct Answer: B
Understanding Recording Aliases
The Content Server records calls and can produce the resulting recordings in a range of formats and sizes for users to
watch or download. Creators of recordings can make recordings available to all or selected users. To make recordings,
creators must use a recording alias. A recording alias defines several properties, including ones related to dialing the
Content Server from an endpoint for the recording session; specifying recording outputs; and indicating viewing and
editing
permissions (see Recording Alias Properties).
There are two types of recording alias:
System recording aliases, which can be used by any user in the creator or site manager role.
Personal recording aliases, which have owners in the creator role. Owners can edit certain parts of their recording
aliases: recording settings, default recording information, and default recording permissions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html#wp999176

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Cisco 210-060 exam questions, 210-060 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)” Exam 210-060. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-060 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-060 exam – This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco UC solutions maintenance. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html exam.

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Free Cisco 210-060 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

In which three ways does QoS provide better network service VoIP quality? (Choose three.) 

A. minimizes priority queuing 

B. manages network congestion 

C. improves loss characteristics 

D. supports dedicated bandwidth 

E. decreases traffic priorities 

F. increases packet size 

Correct Answer: BCD 

In general, QoS provides better (and more predictable) network service by providing the following features: ?Supporting

dedicated bandwidth ?Improving loss characteristics ?Avoiding and managing network congestion ?Shaping network

traffic ?Setting traffic priorities across the network Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/qos_solutions/QoSVoIP/QoSVoIP.pdf 

 

QUESTION 2

An engineer is selecting a digital media player and must ensure that there are Ethernet downlink ports. Which model

has these ports? 

A. Edge 300 DMP 

B. Edge 340 DMP 

C. 4310 DMP 

D. 4400 DMP 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 

A. Port Monitor 

B. Called Party Tracing 

C. System Summary 

D. Trace and Log Central 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator

configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? 

A. Cisco Quality Report Tool 

B. System Log Management 

C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting 

D. Cisco JTAPI 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 5

How many servers can be supported in a Cisco IM and Presence Service Cluster? 

A. 10 

B. 2 

C. 8 

D. 6 

E. 4 

Correct Answer: D 

The Cisco IM and Presence Service cluster consists of up to a maximum of six servers, which can be configured into

multiple subclusters with the maximum of three subclusters for high availability. 

 

QUESTION 6

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-
peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-1 lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-2

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port
used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-3

 

QUESTION 7
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement
assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco 7800
C. Cisco DX650
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which four fields are required when manually configuring IP phones in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
(Choose four.)
A. MAC Address
B. IP Address
C. Hunt Group
D. VLAN ID
E. Device Pool
F. Phone Button Template
G. Dial Peer
H. Device Security Profile
Correct Answer: AEFH

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer has updated the company dial plan and wants to get rid of unassigned numbers. Which action must be
taken in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to accomplish this task?
A. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Group
B. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Plan Report
C. Delete unassigned DNs under Route List
D. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Pattern
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91_chapter_0101111.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid plants or decorations
C. Use glossy finishes
D. Avoid high-contrast elements
E. Use earth tone paint colors
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is configuring a user to have Cisco Extension Mobility. Where is the line configured?
A. Primary Extension
B. Device Profile
C. User Configuration
D. CAPF Profile
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user\\’s 7945 IP
phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

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Braindump4it shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam “Identity with Windows Server 2016”
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Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-742.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
  • Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
  • Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
  • Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
  • Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).

Candidates should also be familiar implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.

Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You deploy a new Active Directory forest. 

You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.

Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each member server. Does this

meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named

Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. 

Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server

retrieves data from Server2. 

You create a domain user account named User1. 

You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP. 

Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. 

Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Computers container.
B. Run the redircmp.exe command.
C. Modify the Security settings of the technician\\’s user account.
D. Add the technician to the Windows Authorization Access group.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active
Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains three domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q4

The company physically relocates Server2 from the Montreal office to the Seattle office.
You discover that both Server1 and Server2 authenticate users who sign in to the client computers in the Montreal
office. Only Server3 authenticates users who sign in to the computers in the Seattle office.
You need to ensure that Server2 authenticates the users in the Seattle office during normal network operations.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADReplicationSite cmdlet.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Location Property of Server2.
C. From Network Connections on Server2, modify the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) configuration.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADDirectoryServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy a new Active Directory forest.
You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.
Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each domain controller.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company implements Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You confirm that the company meets all the prerequisites for using Microsoft Azure Multi- Factor Authentication (MFA)
and AD FS.
You need to ensure that you can select MFA as the primary authentication method for AD FS.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an enterprise certification
authority (CA).
A user named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You need to ensure that you can archive keys on the CA. The solution must use Admin1 as a key recovery agent.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7-1

http://markgossa.blogspot.com/2017/03/enable-key-archival-in-server-2012-r2.html

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain has a password policy that requires
at least seven characters.
You create an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. and then run the following commands.
redirusr OU=OU1.DC-Adatum,DC=com
New-ADUser User1
You need to identity the state of User1.
What should you identify?
A. User1 is created in OUT, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
B. User1 is created in the Users container, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
C. User1 is created in the Users container, is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
D. User1 is created in 0U1. is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-1

Box 1: Pass-through
Box 2: Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
Box 3: Pass-through
The following table describes the Exchange services that you can publish through Web Application Proxy and the
supported preauthentication for these services:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-2

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn528827(v=ws.11).aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Your company has an office in Montreal. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named Montreal that contains all of the users accounts for the users in the
Montreal office. An office manager in the Montreal office knows each user personally.
You need to ensure that the office manager can provide the users with a new password if the users forget their
password.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Montreal OU. Assign the office manager the Apply
Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO.
B. From the Security settings of each user account in the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Change
Password permission.
C. From the Security settings of the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Reset Password permission.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the OU of the domain. Filter the GPO to the Montreal users.
Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of
the GPO.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -ADuser User1 -UserPrincipalName [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Your network is isolated from the Internet. The network contains computers that are members of a domain and
computers that are members of a workgroup. All the computers are configured to use internal DNS servers and WINS
servers for name resolution.
The domain has a certification authority (CA). You run the Get-CACrlDistributionPoint cmdlet and receive the output as
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 desktop computers
and 500 laptops. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the computer accounts for the desktop computers
and
the laptops.
You create a Windows PowerShell script named Script1.ps1 that removes temporary files and cookies. You create a
Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to run the script once weekly only on the laptops.
What should you do?
A. In GPO1, create a File preference that uses item-level targeting.
B. In GPO1, create a Scheduled Tasks preference that uses item-level targeting.
C. In GPO1, configure the File System security policy. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. In GPO1, add Script1.ps1 as a startup script. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
Correct Answer: B

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Test your Cisco Specialist 700-265 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature allows an MPLS TE tunnel to be used by an IGP at the headend of the tunnel ?
A. MPLS TE Forwarding Adjacency
B. Generalized MPLS
C. Different Services traffic Engineering
D. MPLS TE link management
E. MPLS TE autoroute announce
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2

The exhibit illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between MPLS VPN inter-AS. The exhibit also
shows ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses. Which command is needed to change the next-hop address when
ASBR2 is not configured?
A. Redistribute command with the BGP routing process
B. Redistribute command with connected
C. Redistribute command with the IGP routing process
D. Redistribute command with static
Correct Answer: B
Figure 11-3 illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between autonomous systems. The only
difference is that ASBR2 is configured with the redistribute connected command, which propagates the host routes to all
PEs. The redistribute connected command is necessary because ASBR2 is not the configured to change the next hop
address.

lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2-1

Figure 11-3 Host Routes Propagated to All PEs Between Two Autonomous Systems
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/4.0/mpls/user/guide/11_isc.html

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and
that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three MPLS Traffic-eng DS-TE models are defined by IETF standard? (Choose three)
A. GRDM
B. MAR
C. MAM
D. RDM
E. G-BAM
F. A-RDM
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Assume two routers on the same subnet, R1 and R2, both configured for HSRP. R1 has a priority of 120. Which of the
following HSRP interface configurations will always result in the R2 becoming the primary? (Choose two.)
A. standby 1 priority 120
B. standby 1 priority 130 preempt
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 priority 120 preempt
E. standby 1 priority 110 preempt
F. standby 1 priority 110
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 7
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which transparent LAN service allows a service provider to offer Layer 2 Ethernet service to connect an enterprise in a
metro region?
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. PPP over MPLS
D. HDLC over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Why is R4 unable to install any ISIS routes in the routing table?
A. ISIS LSP has an authentication issue.
B. No DR has been elected on this segment.
C. The metric style is mismatched.
D. Circuit levels are different.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit, Which OSPFv3 redistribute configuration provides the equivalent results when redistributing from
EIGRP Pv6 onto OSPFv3 as it happens when redistributing from EIGRPv4 to OSPFv2?
A. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 redistribute connected
B. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 connected
C. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 include-connected
D. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two sets of configuration implements CBTS? (Choose two)
A. Create multiple MPLS TE from the same headend to the same tail-end
B. Assign a policy-map defining a CBWFQ on an MPLS TE tunnel
C. Create a master tunnel to which other tunnels can be members
D. Create two bandwidth pools a global pool and a pool
E. Create a PBR to use multiple MPLS TE tunnels according to the EXP value
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid
misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following IOS commands can detect whether the SQL slammer virus propagates in your networks?
A. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69 log
B. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434 log
C. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69
D. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UCS Manager account is the default user account, which cannot be deleted or modified?
A. admin
B. superuser
C. super user
D. root
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on the Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are
connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 10
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG

 

QUESTION 11
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of traffic is handled by the data plane?
A. packets destined for the device
B. control packets
C. transit packets
D. packets indirectly destined for the device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peer link 
B. vPC peer-keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
In the Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In the Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with a permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?
A. It restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. It is implemented only if no errors occur.
D. It is implemented and any errors are skipped.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_7rollback.htm

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q3

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to combine the advantages of a trunking F port and an F port channel.
Which command on a Cisco MDS switch should be used to enable this?
A. enable port-channel
B. feature trunking-fport
C. feature fport-channel-trunk
D. port-channel trunk
E. feature fport-trunk
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 6
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 9
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not recognized by the server.
What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
B. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
C. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
D. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the
following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is a symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q11

Which conditions can trigger on a Cisco Nexus device running FabricPath?
A. A switch connected to the Cisco Nexus device is running RSTP instead of STP.
B. A BPDU with bridge priority set to 61140 is received by the switch edge port.
C. The switch edge port in the STP domain is not configured as root.
D. VLAN is configured incorrectly on port-channel 100.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer\\’s representatives want to know
how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command
is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issue test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a
monitoring session?lead4pass 300-180 exam question q13

A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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