The IT industry continues to grow at an unprecedented pace, with demand for skilled professionals driving career opportunities worldwide. CompTIA certifications stand out as a trusted benchmark for validating technical expertise, offering a clear path for beginners and seasoned pros alike. This article ranks the top 10 CompTIA certification exams for 2025 based on industry relevance, job demand, and earning potential. Beyond a simple list, it provides actionable insights
Why CompTIA Certifications Matter
CompTIA (Computing Technology Industry Association) certifications are vendor-neutral, meaning they focus on foundational and advanced IT skills applicable across multiple platforms—unlike vendor-specific credentials like Cisco’s CCNA or Microsoft’s Azure certifications. This versatility makes them invaluable for professionals navigating a diverse tech landscape. According to CompTIA’s own data, over 2.5 million certifications have been awarded globally, a testament to their authority and trustworthiness in the field.
For readers, the real question isn’t “Why certify?” but “Which certification fits my goals?” This article answers that by breaking down the top 10 exams, their challenges, and how they address career-specific needs—whether you’re stuck in a low-paying job, seeking a promotion, or breaking into IT without a degree.
Ranking the Top 10 CompTIA Certification Exams
Below is a detailed ranking of the top 10 CompTIA certification exams for 2025, based on job market trends, salary data, and practical utility. Each section includes exam details, target audience, difficulty, and real-world applications.
1.CompTIA A+ (Core 1: 220-1101, Core 2: 220-1102)
Overview: The entry-level gold standard for IT support roles, covering hardware, software, networking, and troubleshooting.
Difficulty: Moderate (requires 9-12 months of experience).
Cost: $246 per exam (total $492).
Jobs: Help Desk Technician, IT Support Specialist.
Salary: $45,000–$65,000 annually (U.S. median, per CompTIA).
Why It’s Top: It’s the most recognized starting point, solving the “no experience, no job” dilemma for beginners.
Practical Value: A+ equips you with skills to fix PCs, configure mobile devices, and troubleshoot networks—tasks employers expect on day one.
2.CompTIA Network+ (N10-008 -> N10-009)
Overview: Focuses on networking concepts, infrastructure, and operations.
Difficulty: Moderate to High (builds on A+ knowledge).
Cost: $358.
Jobs: Network Administrator, Systems Engineer.
Salary: $60,000–$85,000.
Why It’s Top: Networks+ are the backbone of IT; this cert proves you can manage them.
Practical Value: Learn to set up routers, troubleshoot connectivity, and secure networks—skills in demand as remote work grows.
3.CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701)
Overview: Covers cybersecurity fundamentals, threat detection, and risk management.
Difficulty: High (requires networking basics).
Cost: $392.
Jobs: Security Analyst, IT Auditor.
Salary: $75,000–$100,000.
Why It’s Top: Cybersecurity is a critical need; this cert opens high-paying doors.
Practical Value: Master encryption, incident response, and compliance—skills that protect businesses from costly breaches.
Overview: Advanced security for enterprise environments.
Difficulty: Expert (10+ years recommended).
Cost: $494.
Jobs: Security Architect, Senior Analyst.
Salary: $100,000–$140,000.
Why It’s Top: The pinnacle of CompTIA’s security track.
Practical Value: Design secure systems at scale—expertise that commands top pay.
8.CompTIA Server+ (SK0-005)
Overview: Covers server hardware, software, and management.
Difficulty: Moderate-High.
Cost: $358.
Jobs: Server Administrator, Data Center Technician.
Salary: $65,000–$90,000.
Why It’s Top: Servers power everything; this cert keeps them running.
Practical Value: Manage physical and virtual servers—skills vital for data-driven firms.
9.CompTIA Linux+ (XK0-005)
Overview: Focuses on Linux system administration and security.
Difficulty: High (Linux experience needed).
Cost: $358.
Jobs: Linux Administrator, DevOps Engineer.
Salary: $70,000–$95,000.
Why It’s Top: Linux+ powers most servers and clouds.
Practical Value: Administer open-source systems—key for cost-conscious employers.
10.CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005)
Overview: Project management tailored for IT environments.
Difficulty: Moderate.
Cost: $358.
Jobs: IT Project Manager, Coordinator.
Salary: $70,000–$100,000.
Why It’s Top: Bridges tech skills with leadership.
Practical Value: Lead IT projects effectively—skills that boost team success.
How to Prepare for CompTIA Exams?
Preparing for a CompTIA exam can feel overwhelming—especially if you’re balancing work, family, or financial constraints. Here’s how to tackle common challenges with proven strategies:
1.Time Management: Study 2-3 hours daily for 8-12 weeks. Use tools like Pomodoro for focus.
2.Cost Concerns: Leverage free resources like Professor Messer’s videos alongside official CompTIA study guides.
3.Hands-On Practice: Set up a home lab with VirtualBox or use CompTIA Labs.
4.Exam Anxiety: Take practice tests on Leads4Pass to build confidence.
Conclusion
CompTIA certifications offer a structured path to IT success, addressing real-world needs like job security, skill validation, and career growth. From A+ to CASP+, Each exam addresses specific needs—whether it’s breaking into IT, mastering networks, or securing systems. Choose based on your experience and goals, and use the strategies above to pass with confidence. For more details, visit CompTIA’s official site.
Key Questions Candidates Care About
1.Are CompTIA Exams Too Hard for Beginners?
Answer: Not if you prepare. A+ is beginner-friendly with a 70% pass rate if you study 8–12 weeks using CompTIA CertMaster. Higher-level exams like Security+ need networking basics but are manageable with effort. Start small and build up.
2.What Happens If I Fail a CompTIA Exam?
You can retake it—no limit on attempts. Wait 14 days if it’s your second try (CompTIA policy). Costs add up ($358–$494 per exam), so review weak areas with practice tests before retrying.
3.Are CompTIA Certs Recognized Worldwide?
Yes, they’re globally accepted. Over 2.5 million certifications awarded across 147 countries (CompTIA data). Companies like IBM and governments like the U.S. DoD value them, making them portable for international careers.
4.Can CompTIA Certs Replace a College Degree?
Often, yes. Employers like Dell and HP hire A+ or Security+ holders without degrees for roles paying $45,000–$100,000 (BLS data). Pair certs with experience—degrees help, but certs prove skills faster.
5.Do CompTIA Certifications Expire?
Most expire after 3 years (e.g., Security+, Network+), but A+ is lifelong. Renew by earning CEUs via training or higher certs (CompTIA CE Program). Plan ahead—expiration can affect job eligibility.
6.What’s the Format of CompTIA Exams Like?
Exams mix multiple-choice and performance-based questions (PBQs). A+ has 90 questions in 90 minutes, including PBQs like configuring a firewall (CompTIA A+ details). Practice PBQs online to get comfortable—speed and hands-on skills are key.
CV0-004 exam dumps meet all preparation requirements for the actual CompTIA Cloud+ exam, providing real-life scenario exam questions and answers.
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) Verification Candidate:
Understand cloud architecture and design concepts.
Implement and maintain a secure cloud environment.
Successfully provision and configure cloud resources.
Demonstrate the ability to manage operations throughout the cloud environment life cycle using observability, scaling, and automation.
Understand fundamental DevOps concepts related to deployment and integration.
Troubleshoot common issues related to cloud management.
Use CV0-004 exam dump, which contains 285 latest exam questions and answers, accurately hits all core exam questions, reading list:
Single & multiple choice
277 Q&As
Hotspot
2 Q&As
Simulation labs
6 Q&As
Update time
Feb 2025
The actual CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-004) exam will change over time. But no matter what happens, Leads4Pass can always provide the latest CV0-004 exam dumps as soon as possible, identify the latest materials, and download the latest materials to help you pass easily.
Next, you can verify a free CV0-004 exam question online.
A cloud engineer wants to replace the current on-premises. unstructured data storage with a solution in the cloud. The new solution needs to be cost-effective and highly scalable. Which of the following types of storage would be best to use?
A. File
B. Block
C. Object
D. SAN
Correct Answer: C
Object storage is ideal for cost-effective and highly scalable unstructured data. It allows for the storage of massive amounts of unstructured data in a flat namespace and is not constrained by the rigid structures of file or block storage. Object
storage is highly durable and designed for high levels of scalability and accessibility.
References: The suitability of object storage for unstructured data and scalability is a part of cloud storage technologies covered in CompTIA Cloud+ materials.
Question 2:
A company needs to deploy its own code directly in the cloud without provisioning additional infrastructure. Which of the following is the best cloud service model for the company to use?
A. PaaS
B. SaaS
C. laaS
D. XaaS
Correct Answer: A
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is the best cloud service model for deploying code directly in the cloud without provisioning additional infrastructure. PaaS provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure.References: The PaaS model and its benefits for application deployment are covered under the Cloud Concepts domain in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
Question 3:
Which of the following do developers use to keep track of changes made during software development projects?
A. Code drifting
B. Code control
C. Code testing
D. Code versioning
Correct Answer: D
Developers use code versioning to keep track of changes made during software development projects. It is a system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that specific versions can be recalled later. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) – Chapter on Software Development in Cloud Environments
Question 4:
A cloud developer is creating a static website that customers will be accessing globally. Which of the following services will help reduce latency?
A. VPC
B. Application load balancer
C. CDN
D. API gateway
Correct Answer: C
A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is the service that will help reduce latency for a static website accessed globally. CDNs distribute content across multiple geographically dispersed servers, allowing users to connect to a server that is closer to them, thereby reducing the time it takes to load the website.
References: The use of CDNs is a common practice to enhance global access and improve user experience, as covered under Cloud Concepts in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
Question 5:
A company has applications that need to remain available in the event of the data center being unavailable. The company\’s cloud architect needs to find a solution to maintain business continuity.
Which of following should the company implement?
A. A DR solution for the application between different data centers
B. An off-site backup solution with a third-party vendor
C. laC techniques to recreate the system at a new provider
D. An HA solution for the application inside the data center
Correct Answer: A
A disaster recovery (DR) solution is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to restore or continue its critical functions in the event of a natural or human-induced disaster. A DR solution for the application between different data centers means that the application is replicated or backed up to another location that is geographically separated from the primary data center. This way, if the primary data center becomes unavailable due to a power outage,
fire, flood, cyberattack, or any other cause, the application can be switched over to the secondary data center and resume its operations with minimal downtime and data loss. This solution ensures business continuity and high availability for the application and its users.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0- 003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221-222; Disaster recovery planning guide.
Question 6:
SIMULATION
You are a cloud engineer working for a cloud service provider that is responsible for an IaaS offering.
Your customer, who creates VMs and manages virtual storage, has noticed I/O bandwidth issues and low IOPS (under 9000).
Your manager wants you to verify the proper storage configuration as dictated by your service level agreement (SLA).
The SLA specifies:
1.
Each SFP on the hypervisor host must be set to the maximum link speed allowed by the SAN array. . All SAN array disk groups must be configured in a RAID 5.
2.
The SAN array must be fully configured for redundant fabric paths. . IOPS should not fall below 14000 INSTRUCTIONS Click on each service processor to review the displayed information. Then click on the drop-down menus to change the settings of each device as necessary to conform to the SLA requirements.
A. See the explanation for complete solution.
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A
Based on the SLA requirements and the information provided in the diagram:
For the Hypervisor:
Slot A fiber channel card:
Port 1 link speed should be set to 16 Gbps since it\’s connected to Fabric switch A which supports 16 Gbps.
Port 2 link speed should be set to 8 Gbps because it\’s connected to Fabric switch B which supports up to 8 Gbps.
Slot B fiber channel card:
Port 1 link speed should be set to 16 Gbps since it\’s connected to Fabric switch A which supports 16 Gbps.
Port 2 link speed should be set to 8 Gbps because it\’s connected to Fabric switch B which supports up to 8 Gbps.
Question 7:
An engineer made a change to an application and needs to select a deployment strategy that meets the following requirements:
1.
Is simple and fast
2.
Can be performed on two Identical platforms
Which of the following strategies should the engineer use?
A. Blue-green
B. Canary
C. Rolling
D. in-place
Correct Answer: A
The blue-green deployment strategy is ideal for scenarios where simplicity and speed are crucial. It involves two identical production environments: one (blue) hosts the current application version, while the other (green) is used to deploy the new version. Once testing is completed on the green environment and it\’s ready to go live, traffic is switched from blue to green, ensuring a quick and efficient rollout with minimal downtime.
This method allows for immediate rollback if issues arise, by simply redirecting the traffic back to the blue environment.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ material emphasizes the importance of understanding various cloud deployment strategies, including blue-green, and their application in real-world scenarios to ensure efficient and reliable software deployment in cloud environments.
Question 8:
A company runs a discussion forum that caters to global users. The company\’s monitoring system reports that the home page suddenly is seeing elevated response times, even though internal monitoring has reported no issues or changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Cryptojacking
B. Human error
C. DDoS
D. Phishing
Correct Answer: C
Elevated response times without reported issues or changes internally could indicate a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack, where multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers.
References: CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals by Mark Ciampa.
Question 9:
An organization has been using an old version of an Apache Log4j software component in its critical software application.
Which of the following should the organization use to calculate the severity of the risk from using this component?
A. CWE
B. CVSS
C. CWSS
D. CVE
Correct Answer: B
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is what the organization should use to calculate the severity of the risk from using an old version of Apache Log4j software component. CVSS provides an open framework for communicating the characteristics and impacts of IT vulnerabilities.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) – Chapter on Risk Management
Question 10:
A critical security patch is required on a network load balancer in a public cloud. The organization has a major sales conference next week, and the Chief Executive Officer does not want any interruptions during the demonstration of an application behind the load balancer.
Which of the following approaches should the cloud security engineer take?
A. Ask the management team to delay the conference.
B. Apply the security patch after the event.
C. Ask the upper management team to approve an emergency patch window.
D. Apply the security patch immediately before the conference.
Correct Answer: C
Given the critical nature of the patch and the upcoming major sales conference, the cloud security engineer should seek approval for an emergency patch window. This approach balances the need for security with the business requirement of no interruptions during the conference.References: The strategy of managing critical updates in alignment with business operations is part of the governance and risk management topics in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.
Question 11:
A company that has several branches worldwide needs to facilitate full access to a specific cloud resource to a branch in Spain. Other branches will have only read access. Which of the following is the best way to grant access to the branch in Spain?
A. Set up MFA for the users working at the branch.
B. Create a network security group with required permissions for users in Spain.
C. Apply a rule on the WAF to allow only users in Spain access to the resource.
D. Implement an IPS/IDS to detect unauthorized users.
Correct Answer: B
The best way to grant full access to a specific cloud resource to a branch in Spain, while other branches have only read access, is to create a network security group with the required permissions. This group can be configured to allow full access to users within the branch\’s IP range while restricting others to read-only access.
References:
CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) – Chapter on Security Configuration
Question 12:
A company wants to move to a multicloud environment and utilize the technology that provides the most portability. Which of the following technology solutions would BEST meet the company\’s needs?
A. Bootstrap
B. Virtual machines
C. Clusters
D. Containers
Correct Answer: D
The technology that provides the most portability for a multicloud environment is containers. Containers are units of software that package an application and its dependencies into a standardized and isolated environment that can run on any platform or cloud service. Containers are lightweight, scalable, and portable, as they do not depend on the underlying infrastructure or operating system.
Containers can also be managed by orchestration tools that automate the deployment, scaling, and networking of containerized applications across multiple clouds.
Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario involving integration between multiple cloud environments, select an appropriate solution design.
Question 13:
After accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text, which of the following should a cloud administrator do FIRST? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the resources that are accessible to the affected IAM user
B. Remove the published plain-text password
C. Notify users that a data breach has occurred
D. Change the affected IAM user\’s password
E. Delete the affected IAM user
Correct Answer: BD
The first step a cloud administrator should take after accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text is to remove the published plain-text password. This should be done immediately to prevent unauthorized access to the affected user\’s resources. The administrator should then change the password for the affected IAM user to a new, strong password. This will ensure that the user\’s resources are secure and that there is no unauthorized access.
A. Identifying the resources that are accessible to the affected IAM user is important, but it should not be done before removing the plain-text password and changing the password for the affected user. This step can be taken after the immediate security concerns have been addressed.
C. While it is important to notify users of a data breach, this step is not necessary in this situation as the password was accidentally uploaded and there is no evidence that any unauthorized access has occurred. However, the cloud administrator should review their security protocols to ensure that similar incidents do not occur in the future.
E. Deleting the affected IAM user is not necessary in this situation, as the user\’s resources can be secured by changing the password. Deleting the user may cause unnecessary disruption to the user\’s workflow and could result in the loss of important data.
In summary, the first step a cloud administrator should take after accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text is to remove the published plain-text password, followed by changing the password for the affected user.
Question 14:
An e-commerce store is preparing for an annual holiday sale. Previously, this sale has increased the number of transactions between two and ten times the normal level of transactions. A cloud administrator wants to implement a process to scale the web server seamlessly. The goal is to automate changes only when necessary and with minimal cost.
Which of the following scaling approaches should the administrator use?
A. Scale horizontally with additional web servers to provide redundancy.
B. Allow the load to trigger adjustments to the resources.
C. When traffic increases, adjust the resources using the cloud portal.
D. Schedule the environment to scale resources before the sale begins.
Correct Answer: B
To seamlessly scale the web server for an e-commerce store during an annual sale, it\’s best to allow the load to trigger adjustments to the resources. This approach uses autoscaling to automatically adjust the number of active servers based on the current load, ensuring an automated change that is cost-effective.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) – Chapter on Cloud Scalability
Question 15:
A systems administrator has been asked to restore a VM from backup without changing the current VM\’s operating state. Which of the following restoration methods would BEST fit this scenario?
So what is the difference between the latest PT0-003 certification exam and the previous one?
Compare the differences individually:
It can be clearly seen from the table and picture above that PT0-003 has made some very important updates compared to PT0-002, especially the technical operations and attack execution capabilities for specific tasks during the penetration testing process.
In addition to retaining planning and compliance requirements, specific technical operations such as enumeration and reconnaissance, vulnerability analysis, attack execution, and data extraction are added, making the description more practical and emphasizing the ability to attack and obtain data.
There is also a small detail. The PT0-003 exam has added 5 more test questions without changing the test time. This will greatly increase the difficulty of the test and the time to answer the questions.
How should we prepare as candidates?
There are many ways to prepare for the exam on the Internet, buy books, video tutorials, online training and more. But please remember that to pass the PT0-003 exam, you must not use old learning materials. What is truly effective is the latest learning materials.
Now I will share the latest PT0-003 dumps exam questions and answers. In response to the new changes, we have also made new materials to ensure that you can study easily and pass the exam smoothly.
Read the latest list of PT0-003 dumps:
Total Questions
234
Single & multiple Choice
222
Drag Drop
5
Hotsopt
2
Simulation Labs
5
Updated on
Feb 06, 2025
The above are the complete PT0-003 dumps exam questions and answers. You can choose PDF or VCE learning tools on Leads4Pass to help you practice the test. VCE provides real-life scenario simulation tests. Both learning methods provide complete learning materials.
Keep reading, below I will share some latest CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-003 dumps exam questions for free.
A penetration tester has prepared the following phishing email for an upcoming penetration test:
Which of the following is the penetration tester using MOST to influence phishing targets to click on the link?
A. Familiarity and likeness
B. Authority and urgency
C. Scarcity and fear
D. Social proof and greed
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
A penetration tester initiated the transfer of a large data set to verify a proof-of-concept attack as permitted by the ROE. The tester noticed the client\’s data included PII, which is out of scope, and immediately stopped the transfer.
Which of the following MOST likely explains the penetration tester\’s decision?
A. The tester had the situational awareness to stop the transfer.
B. The tester found evidence of prior compromise within the data set.
C. The tester completed the assigned part of the assessment workflow.
D. The tester reached the end of the assessment time frame.
Correct Answer: A
Situational awareness is the ability to perceive and understand the environment and events around oneself, and to act accordingly. The penetration tester demonstrated situational awareness by stopping the transfer of PII, which was out of scope and could have violated the ROE or legal and ethical principles. The other options are not relevant to the situation or the decision of the penetration tester.
Question 3:
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to evaluate the security of the company\’s e- commerce application.
Which of the following tools should a penetration tester use FIRST to obtain relevant information from the application without triggering alarms?
A. SQLmap
B. DirBuster
C. w3af
D. OWASP ZAP
Correct Answer: C
W3AF, the Web Application Attack and Audit Framework, is an open source web application security scanner that includes directory and filename bruteforcing in its list of capabilities.
Question 4:
In a cloud environment, a security team discovers that an attacker accessed confidential information that was used to configure virtual machines during their initialization. Through which of the following features could this information have been accessed?
A. IAM
B. Block storage
C. Virtual private cloud
D. Metadata services
Correct Answer: D
In a cloud environment, the information used to configure virtual machines during their initialization could have been accessed through metadata services.
Metadata Services:
Other Features:
Pentest References:
Cloud Security: Understanding how metadata services work and the potential risks associated with them is crucial for securing cloud environments. Exploitation: Metadata services can be exploited to retrieve sensitive data if not properly secured.
By accessing metadata services, an attacker can retrieve sensitive configuration information used during VM initialization, which can lead to further exploitation.
Question 5:
During a penetration testing engagement, a tester targets the internet-facing services used by the client. Which of the following describes the type of assessment that should be considered in this scope of work?
A. Segmentation
B. Mobile
C. External
D. Web
Correct Answer: C
An external assessment focuses on testing the security of internet-facing services. Here\’s why option C is correct:
External Assessment: It involves evaluating the security posture of services exposed to the internet, such as web servers, mail servers, and other public-facing infrastructure.
The goal is to identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers from outside the organization\’s network.
Segmentation: This type of assessment focuses on ensuring that different parts of a network are appropriately segmented to limit the spread of attacks. It\’s more relevant to internal network architecture.
Mobile: This assessment targets mobile applications and devices, not general internet-facing services.
Web: While web assessments focus on web applications, the scope of an external assessment is broader and includes all types of internet-facing services.
References from Pentest:
Horizontall HTB: Highlights the importance of assessing external services to identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited from outside the network. Luke HTB: Demonstrates the process of evaluating public-facing services to ensure their security.
Conclusion:
Option C, External, is the most appropriate type of assessment for targeting internet-facing services used by the client.
Question 6:
A security engineer is trying to bypass a network IPS that isolates the source when the scan exceeds 100 packets per minute. The scope of the scan is to identify web servers in the 10.0.0.0/16 subnet.
Which of the following commands should the engineer use to achieve the objective in the least amount of time?
A. nmap -T3 -p 80 10.0.0.0/16 — max-hostgroup 100
B. nmap -TO -p 80 10.0.0.0/16
C. nmap -T4 -p 80 10.0.0.0/16 — max-rate 60
D. nmap -T5 -p 80 10.0.0.0/16 — min-rate 80
Correct Answer: C
The nmap -T4 -p 80 10.0.0.0/16 — max-rate 60 command is used to scan the 10.0.0.0/16 subnet for web servers (port 80) at a maximum rate of 60 packets per minute. The -T4 option sets the timing template to “aggressive”, which speeds up the scan.
The — max-rate option limits the number of packets sent per second, helping to bypass the network IPS that isolates the source when the scan exceeds 100 packets per minute12.
Question 7:
During passive reconnaissance of a target organization\’s infrastructure, a penetration tester wants to identify key contacts and job responsibilities within the company.
Which of the following techniques would be the most effective for this situation?
A. Social media scraping
B. Website archive and caching
C. DNS lookup
D. File metadata analysis
Correct Answer: A
Social media scraping involves collecting information from social media platforms where employees might share their roles, responsibilities, and professional affiliations. This method can reveal detailed insights into the organizational structure, key personnel, and specific job functions within the target organization, making it an invaluable tool for understanding the company\’s internal landscape without alerting the target to the reconnaissance activities.
Question 8:
A penetration tester is performing an assessment against a customer\’s web application that is hosted in a major cloud provider\’s environment. The penetration tester observes that the majority of the attacks attempted are being blocked by the organization\’s WAF.
Which of the following attacks would be most likely to succeed?
A. Reflected XSS
B. Brute-force
C. DDoS
D. Direct-to-origin
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Which of the following tools would be best to use to conceal data in various kinds of image files?
A. Kismet
B. Snow
C. Responder
D. Metasploit
Correct Answer: B
Snow is a tool designed for steganography, which is the practice of concealing messages or information within other non-secret text or data. In this context, Snow is specifically used to hide data within whitespace of text files, which can include the whitespace areas of images saved in formats that support text descriptions or metadata, such as certain PNG or JPEG files.
While the other tools listed (Kismet, Responder, Metasploit) are powerful in their respective areas (network sniffing, LLMNR/NBT-NS poisoning, and exploitation framework), they do not offer functionality related to data concealment in image files or steganography.
Question 10:
A penetration tester ran a simple Python-based scanner. The following is a snippet of the code: Which of the following BEST describes why this script triggered a `probable port scan` alert in the organization\’s IDS?
A. sock.settimeout(20) on line 7 caused each next socket to be created every 20 milliseconds.
B. *range(1, 1025) on line 1 populated the portList list in numerical order.
C. Line 6 uses socket.SOCK_STREAM instead of socket.SOCK_DGRAM
D. The remoteSvr variable has neither been type-hinted nor initialized.
Correct Answer: B
Port randomization is widely used in port scanners. By default, Nmap randomizes the scanned port order (except that certain commonly accessible ports are moved near the beginning for efficiency reasons) https://nmap.org/book/man-portspecification.html
Question 11:
A penetration tester needs to help create a threat model of a custom application. Which of the following is the most likely framework the tester will use?
A. MITRE ATTandCK
B. OSSTMM
C. CI/CD
D. DREAD
Correct Answer: D
The DREAD model is a risk assessment framework used to evaluate and prioritize the security risks of an application. It stands for Damage potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, and Discoverability.
Understanding DREAD:
Usage in Threat Modeling:
Process:
References from Pentesting Literature:
Step-by-Step ExplanationReferences:
Penetration Testing – A Hands-on Introduction to Hacking HTB Official Writeups
Question 12:
Which of the following is most important when communicating the need for vulnerability remediation to a client at the conclusion of a penetration test?
A. Articulation of cause
B. Articulation of impact
C. Articulation of escalation
D. Articulation of alignment
Correct Answer: B
When concluding a penetration test, effectively communicating the need for vulnerability remediation is crucial. Here\’s why the articulation of impact is the most important aspect:
Articulation of Cause (Option A):
Articulation of Impact (Option B):
Articulation of Escalation (Option C):
Articulation of Alignment (Option D):
Conclusion: Articulating the impact of vulnerabilities is the most crucial element when communicating the need for remediation.
By clearly explaining the potential risks and consequences, penetration testers can effectively convey the urgency and importance of addressing the discovered issues, thus motivating clients to take prompt and appropriate action.
Question 13:
During an assessment, a penetration tester obtains a list of 30 email addresses by crawling the target company\’s website and then creates a list of possible usernames based on the email address format. Which of the following types of attacks would MOST likely be used to avoid account lockout?
A. Mask
B. Rainbow
C. Dictionary
D. Password spraying
Correct Answer: D
Password spraying is a type of password guessing attack that involves trying one or a few common passwords against many usernames or accounts.
Password spraying can avoid account lockout policies that limit the number of failed login attempts per account by spreading out the attempts over time and across different accounts.
Password spraying can also increase the chances of success by using passwords that are likely to be used by many users, such as default passwords, seasonal passwords, or company names.
Mask is a type of password cracking attack that involves using a mask or a pattern to generate passwords based on known or guessed characteristics of the password, such as length, case, or symbols. Rainbow is a technique of storing precomputed hashes of passwords in a table that can be used to quickly crack passwords by looking up the hashes.
Dictionary is a type of password cracking attack that involves using a wordlist or a dictionary of common or likely passwords to try against an account.
Question 14:
A penetration tester is conducting reconnaissance for an upcoming assessment of a large corporate client. The client authorized spear phishing in the rules of engagement.
Which of the following should the tester do first when developing the phishing campaign?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Recon-ng
C. Social media
D. Password dumps
Correct Answer: C
When developing a phishing campaign, the tester should first use social media to gather information about the targets.
Social Media:
Process:
Other Options:
Pentest References:
Spear Phishing: A targeted phishing attack aimed at specific individuals, using personal information to increase the credibility of the email.
OSINT (Open Source Intelligence): Leveraging publicly available information to gather intelligence on targets, including through social media. By starting with social media, the penetration tester can collect detailed and personalized information about the targets, which is essential for creating an effective spear phishing campaign.
Question 15:
HOTSPOT
A penetration tester is performing reconnaissance for a web application assessment. Upon investigation, the tester reviews the robots.txt file for items of interest.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the tool the penetration tester should use for further investigation.
Select the two entries in the robots.txt file that the penetration tester should recommend for removal.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
The tool the penetration tester should use for the further investigation is WPScan The two entries in the robots.txt file that the penetration tester should recommend for removal are 14 Allow: /admin 15 Allow: /wp-admin
Passing the newly released CompTIA Pentest+ PT0-003 exam isn’t easy! Compared with the previous PT0-002 exam, it will be more difficult!
In particular, the core technologies of technical operations and attack execution capabilities in the penetration testing process have been greatly upgraded, so candidates are recommended to use the Latest CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-003 dumps exam questions: https://www.leads4pass.com/pt0-003.html to help them succeed in the exam.
SecurityX, formerly CASP+, The name change emphasizes the advanced, or “Xpert” level certifications in the CompTIA portfolio. covers the technical knowledge and skills required to build, design, integrate and implement security solutions in complex environments. Compared with the previous certification project, there is not much change. But starting from this year to participate in SecurityX certification, you need to look for the CAS-005 exam code.
When choosing the best resources to study for the new CompTIA SecurityX exam, you will definitely also want to know how many days it will take to really master all the exam content, let me tell you it will only take 3 days, it all depends on a few core factors explored in this article.
The Ultimate Guide to CompTIA SecurityX will also explore what you’ll be taking on the test, discuss the best ways to prepare for SecurityX, and answer your most common questions.
About CompTIA SecurityX
To prepare for the CompTIA SecurityX exam in 3 days, you first need to familiarize yourself with the Leads4Pass exam materials.
The CompTIA SecurityX exam is designed to test the advanced knowledge and skills of IT and security professionals. Here are some key aspects of the exam:
Governance, Risk, and Compliance: Requires a comprehensive understanding of information security principles and their application in organizational contexts, with a particular focus on emerging challenges and considerations related to artificial intelligence
Security Architecture: Assess your ability to design and implement secure and resilient systems, taking into account all aspects of security throughout the system lifecycle
Security Engineering: Evaluate your ability to handle advanced security challenges, including troubleshooting, implementing security controls, and applying advanced security concepts in real-world scenarios.
Security Operations: Assess your ability to leverage data and intelligence to proactively identify and respond to security threats and effectively investigate and respond to security incidents
Exam Format:
Question Types: The exam includes a combination of multiple-choice questions, drag-and-drop activities, and performance-based items. Number of Questions: There are a maximum of 90 questions on the exam. Time Limit: You have 165 minutes to complete the exam. Passing Score: This test has no scaled score
CompTIA SecurityX does not require candidates to have formal prerequisites. but,It is recommended that candidates have at least 10 years of practical IT experience, of which 5 years are in security, with knowledge of Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+ and PenTest+ or equivalent
Certification Roadmap
CompTIA SecurityX certification requires a solid foundation in cybersecurity concepts and extensive practical experience.
We think the CompTIA SecurityX certification will unlock your expert potential and take you to the next level by leveraging the comprehensive set of skills in the CompTIA Xpert series.
Prepare for the CompTIA SecurityX exam in 3 days
Why 3 days, this is a study plan!
According to the planned plan, you only need 3 days to prepare for CompTIA SecurityX learning!
Day one:
Download the 2025 CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 exam simulation materials with 195 exam questions and answers in Leads4pass. You can choose PDF, VCE, or PDF+VCE learning tools. You can use PC or mobile phone to easily practice the test. The content covers the four core contents of CompTIA SecurityX that are real and effective.
If you use the VCE tool, first you can get familiar with using this tool. Then spend 2-3 hours reading all the exam questions and taking a practice test to find the current deficiencies, and then spend some time sorting out and understanding the wrong questions. Leads4Pass CAS -005 VCE simulation tool provides explanation and analysis of wrong questions to ensure that you can study efficiently.
Day two:
Build Confidence: You need to take the test again, and this time you need to take the questions you got wrong last time seriously and not only know how to do them but also truly understand what they mean. This step ensures that you can actually complete each question with ease in the actual exam. If there are still errors, they should be resolved and understood in time.
Day Three:
Consolidate your mentality: You should take at least 2 complete mock tests. This is very important! Complete exercises to ensure that you cannot miss any questions. This is an important step to ensure that you pass. Today you should take at least one mock test, and you need to ensure that you answer the questions with full marks, and then relax Mentality, take a good rest to ensure you are mentally prepared for the actual exam.
A security review revealed that not all of the client proxy traffic is being captured. Which of the following architectural changes best enables the capture of traffic for analysis?
A. Adding an additional proxy server to each segmented VLAN
B. Setting up a reverse proxy for client logging at the gateway
C. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs
D. Enabling client device logging and system event auditing
Correct Answer: C
Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here\’s why:
Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis.
Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate anomalies. Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive
method that does not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing disruption to existing services.
Question 2:
A security architect is reviewing the following organizational specifications for a new application:
1.
Be sessionless and API-based
2.
Accept uploaded documents with PII, so all storage must be ephemeral
3.
Be able to scale on-demand across multiple nodes
4.
Restrict all network access except for the TLS port
Which of the following ways should the architect recommend the application be deployed in order to meet security and organizational infrastructure requirements?
A. Utilizing the cloud container service
B. On server instances with autoscaling groups
C. Using scripted delivery
D. With a content delivery network
Correct Answer: A
Deploying the application using a cloud container service aligns well with the specified security and organizational infrastructure requirements. It ensures sessionless, API-based operation, supports ephemeral storage for uploaded documents with PII, enables on-demand scalability across multiple nodes, and facilitates strict restriction of network access except for the TLS port.
Question 3:
A security analyst is participating in a risk assessment and is helping to calculate the exposure factor associated with various systems and processes within the organization. Which of the following resources would be most useful to calculate the exposure factor in this scenario?
A. Gap analysis
B. Business impact analysis
C. Risk register
D. Information security policy
E. Lessons learned
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
A security engineer has learned that terminated employees\’ accounts are not being disabled. The termination dates are updated automatically in the human resources information system software by the appropriate human resources staff. Which of the following would best reduce risks to the organization?
A. Exporting reports from the system on a weekly basis to disable terminated employees\’ accounts
B. Granting permission to human resources staff to mark terminated employees\’ accounts as disabled
C. Configuring allowed login times for all staff to only work during business hours
D. Automating a process to disable the accounts by integrating Active Directory and human resources information systems
Correct Answer: D
Automating the process to disable terminated employees\’ accounts by integrating Active Directory (or any other authentication system) with the human resources information system (HRIS) is the best approach to reduce risks to the organization. By automating this process, the organization ensures that accounts are disabled promptly and consistently whenever an employee\’s termination date is updated in the HRIS. This reduces the window of opportunity for terminated employees to retain access to systems and sensitive information after leaving the organization.
Question 5:
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
1.
The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
2.
The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
3.
The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
4.
Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?
A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis
B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync
C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored
D. Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally
Correct Answer: A
A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup
compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and
compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.
Other options:
B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync:
While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously. C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction
mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.
D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-209, “Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure” “Immutable Backup Architecture” by Veeam
Question 6:
A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent
Which of the following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability management process\’
A. Request a weekly report with all new assets deployed and decommissioned
B. Extend the DHCP lease lime to allow the devices to remain with the same address for a longer period.
C. Implement a shadow IT detection process to avoid rogue devices on the network
D. Perform regular discovery scanning throughout the 11 landscape using the vulnerability management tool
Correct Answer: D
To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool.
Here\’s why:
Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs. Consistency in Reporting: By continuously
discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network. Proactive Management:
Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.
Question 7:
A company recently deployed new servers to create an additional cluster to support a new application. The corporate security policy states that all new servers must be resilient. The new cluster has a high- availability configuration for a smooth failover. The failover was successful following a recent power outage, but both clusters lost critical data, which impacted recovery time. Which of the following needs to be configured to help ensure minimal delays when power outages occur in the future?
A. Replication
B. Caching
C. Containerization
D. Redundancy
E. High availability
Correct Answer: A
Based on the requirement to reduce delays during power outages and the scenario\’s description of data loss despite high availability, configuring replication (option A) is crucial. Replication ensures that critical data is duplicated across clusters, allowing seamless failover and access to data from alternative locations in the event of server failures or power outages. This approach directly addresses the need for data resilience and continuity, ensuring minimal impact on operations during unforeseen disruptions. Thus, replication is the most suitable solution to enhance the company\’s data resilience and reduce recovery times during power outages.
Question 8:
DRAG DROP
IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern.
Options may be used once or not at all.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.
With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.
Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.
No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.
Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant risk.
Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to certain windows.
The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.
Question 9:
An organization is developing on Al-enabled digital worker to help employees complete common tasks such as template development, editing, research, and scheduling. As part of the Al workload the organization wants to Implement guardrails within the platform.
Which of the following should the company do to secure the Al environment?
A. Limn the platform\’s abilities to only non-sensitive functions
B. Enhance the training model\’s effectiveness.
C. Grant the system the ability to self-govern
D. Require end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies.
Correct Answer: A
Limiting the platform\’s abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the
organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse. Enhancing the training model\’s effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern
(Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization\’s control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, “Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations”
ISO/IEC 27001, “Information Security Management”
Question 10:
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment.
Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
B. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
C. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production
D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development
Correct Answer: A
To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language
used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool\’s checks are appropriate for the application\’s context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments. “Secure Coding: Principles and Practices” by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van
Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.
After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.
Each finding may be used more than once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simul-ation, please click the Reset All button.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A junior security researcher has identified a buffer overflow vulnerability leading to remote code execution in a former employer\’s software. The security researcher asks for the manager\’s advice on the vulnerability submission process. Which of the following is the best advice the current manager can provide the security researcher?
A. Collect proof that the exploit works in order to expedite the process.
B. Publish proof-of-concept exploit code on a personal blog.
C. Recommend legal consultation about the process.
D. Visit a bug bounty website for the latest information.
Correct Answer: C
Legal consultation is crucial before proceeding with any vulnerability disclosure process, especially when dealing with vulnerabilities found in former employers\’ software. It ensures that the researcher adheres to legal and ethical standards, protects their rights, and avoids potential legal risks associated with disclosure. Therefore, advising the security researcher to seek legal consultation is the most prudent course of action in this situation.
Question 13:
Users are experiencing a variety of issues when trying to access corporate resources examples include
1.
Connectivity issues between local computers and file servers within branch offices
2.
Inability to download corporate applications on mobile endpoints wtiilc working remotely
3.
Certificate errors when accessing internal web applications
Which of the following actions are the most relevant when troubleshooting the reported issues? (Select two).
A. Review VPN throughput
B. Check IPS rules
C. Restore static content on lite CDN.
D. Enable secure authentication using NAC
E. Implement advanced WAF rules.
F. Validate MDM asset compliance
Correct Answer: AF
The reported issues suggest problems related to network connectivity, remote access, and certificate management:
A. Review VPN throughput: Connectivity issues and the inability to download applications while working remotely may be due to VPN bandwidth or performance issues. Reviewing and optimizing VPN throughput can help resolve these
problems by ensuring that remote users have adequate bandwidth for accessing corporate resources.
F. Validate MDM asset compliance: Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems ensure that mobile endpoints comply with corporate security policies. Validating MDM compliance can help address issues related to the inability to download
applications and certificate errors, as non-compliant devices might be blocked from accessing certain resources.
B. Check IPS rules: While important for security, IPS rules are less likely to directly address the connectivity and certificate issues described. C. Restore static content on the CDN: This action is related to content delivery but does not address
VPN or certificate-related issues. D. Enable secure authentication using NAC: Network Access Control (NAC) enhances security but does not directly address the specific issues described. E. Implement advanced WAF rules: Web Application
Firewalls protect web applications but do not address VPN throughput or mobile device compliance.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-77, “Guide to IPsec VPNs”
CIS Controls, “Control 11: Secure Configuration for Network Devices”
Question 14:
Which of the following provides the best solution for organizations that want to securely back up the MFA seeds for its employees in a central, offline location with minimal management overhead?
A. Key escrow service
B. Secrets management
C. Encrypted database
D. Hardware security module
Correct Answer: D
An HSM provides a highly secure method for storing and managing cryptographic keys and other sensitive data, including MFA seeds. HSMs are designed to be tamper-resistant and are capable of securely generating, storing, and backing up cryptographic keys in an offline environment. Once configured, HSMs require minimal management overhead and provide robust security features, including physical security, to protect the stored data.
Question 15:
A security administrator needs to automate alerting. The server generates structured log files that need to be parsed to determine whether an alarm has been triggered Given the following code function:
Which of the following is most likely the log input that the code will parse?
A. [“error_log] [“system_1”] [“InAlarmState”: True]
B. <“error_log”><“system_1”>
C. error_log;
-system_1:
InAlarmState: True
D. {“error_log”: {“system_1”: {“InAlarmState”: True}}}
Correct Answer: A
…
You can also download the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 PDF practice test
Conclusion
CompTIA SecurityX is a cybersecurity certification worth pursuing.
But it is a more difficult certification and not easy to obtain. Obtaining the CompTIA SecurityX certification requires using useful learning resources and following a reasonable plan to complete the goals, such as the 3-day learning plan I recommend.
You can join the Leads4Pass scheme to access over 1,000 courses and VCE practice tests to help you prepare for your upcoming exams.
FAQ
Is the CompTIA SecurityX exam difficult?
Yes it is more difficult! More than just a CASP+ exam, CompTIA SecurityX highlights advanced or “Xpert” level certifications within the CompTIA portfolio.
Can I get a job with CompTIA SecurityX 2025?
Of course, this is an advanced certification! The upgraded CASP+ meets the current needs of AI, is very suitable for future development, and has a variety of job types suitable for you, such as: Security Architect, Cybersecurity Engineer, SOC Manager, Cyber Risk Analyst, Chief Information Security Officer
What is the salary situation at CompTIA SecurityX?
This has a lot to do with the position you choose and your work experience.
CompTIA salaries increase every year based on your work experience, and the CompTIA Xpert series of certifications are for IT professionals with years of experience who want to validate their expert-level knowledge of business-critical technologies. Therefore, obtaining CompTIA SecurityX certification will definitely earn you a lot of money.
It’s not difficult to find free CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions now! You may already know that there are many free exam questions that can be found through search engines, but you also know that they are just outdated content and will not be of much help to your actual exam.
The truly practical and effective CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions must be protected. You can find the truly protected CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions and answers on Pass4itsure.
Before that, you can verify part of the Pass4itsure CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions and answers online, and they will be guaranteed to be valid in real-time when you actually get the complete material.
CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions online practice test
Which of the ing is the correct ion for a tab-delimited spre file?
A. tap
B. tar
C. sv
D. az
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A tab-delimited spreadsheet file is a type of flat text file that uses tabs as delimiters to separate data values in a table. The file extension for a tab-delimited spreadsheet file is usually .tsv, which stands for tab-separated values.
Therefore, the correct answer is C.
References: [Tab-separated values – Wikipedia], [What is a TSV File? | How to Open, Edit and Convert TSV Files]
Question 2:
Which of the following best describes the law of large numbers?
A. As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population.
B. As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population
C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.
D. When a sample size doubles. the sample is indicative of the whole population.
Correct Answer: B
The best answer is B.
As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population. The law of large numbers, in probability and statistics, states that as a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.
This is due to the sample being more representative of the population as it increases in size. The law of large numbers guarantees stable long-term results for the averages of some random events1 A.
As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it confuses the concepts of standard deviation and mean. Standard deviation is a measure of how much the values in a data set vary from the mean, not how close the mean is to the population average.
Also, as a sample size decreases, its standard deviation tends to increase, not decrease, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.
C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it contradicts the law of large numbers. As a sample size decreases, its mean tends to deviate from the average of the whole population, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.
D. When a sample size doubles, the sample is indicative of the whole population is not correct, because it does not specify how close the sample mean is to the population average. Doubling the sample size does not necessarily make the sample indicative of the whole population, unless the sample size is large enough to begin with.
The law of large numbers does not state a specific number or proportion of samples that are indicative of the whole population, but rather describes how the sample mean approaches the population average as the sample size increases indefinitely.
Question 3:
A recurring event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations. A data analyst notices the event is being logged three hours earlier in one database than in the other database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. The data analyst is not querying the databases correctly.
B. The databases are recording different events.
C. The databases are recording the event in different time zones.
D. The second database is logging incorrectly.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the databases are recording the event in different time zones. A time zone is a region that observes a uniform standard time for legal, commercial, and social purposes. Different time zones have different offsets from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), which is the primary time standard by which the world regulates clocks and time.
For example, UTC-5 is five hours behind UTC, while UTC+3 is three hours ahead of UTC. If an event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations with different time zones, it may appear that the event is being logged at different times, depending on how the databases handle the time zone conversion.
For example, if one database records the event in UTC-5 and another database records the event in UTC+3, then an event that occurs at 12:00 PM in UTC-5 will appear as 9:00 AM in UTC+3. The other options are not likely causes of the issue, as they are either unrelated or implausible.
The data analyst is not querying the databases incorrectly, as this would not affect the time stamps of the events.
The databases are not recording different events, as they are supposed to record the same recurring event. The second database is not logging incorrectly, as there is no evidence or reason to assume that.
Reference: [Time zone – Wikipedia]
Question 4:
Consider the following dataset which contains information about houses that are for sale:
Which of the following string manipulation commands will combine the address and region name columns to create a full address?
A. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;
B. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’-\’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;
C. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’ , \’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5
D. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’-\’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;
Correct Answer: A
The correct answer is A:
SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;
String manipulation (or string handling) is the process of changing, parsing, splicing, pasting, or analyzing strings. SQL is used for managing data in a relational database.
The CONCAT () function adds two or more strings together. Syntax CONCAT(stringl, string2,… string_n) Parameter Values Parameter Description stringl, string2, string_n Required. The strings to add together.
Question 5:
While reviewing survey data, an analyst notices respondents entered “Jan,” “January,” and “01” as responses for the month of January. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure data consistency?
A. Delete any of the responses that do not have “January” written out.
B. Replace any of the responses that have “01”.
C. Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”.
D. Sort any of the responses that say “Jan” and update them to “01”.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”. This is because filtering and updating are data cleansing techniques that can be used to ensure data consistency, which means that the data is uniform and follows a standard format.
By filtering on any of the responses that do not say “January” and updating them to “January”, the analyst can make sure that all the responses for the month of January are written in the same way. The other steps are not appropriate for ensuring data consistency.
Here is why:
Deleting any of the responses that do not have “January” written out would result in data loss, which means that some information would be missing from the data set. This could affect the accuracy and reliability of the analysis.
Replacing any of the responses that have “01” would not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “Jan” and “January”. This could cause confusion and errors in the analysis.
Sorting any of the responses that say “Jan” and updating them to “01” would also not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “01” and “January”. This could also cause confusion and errors in the analysis.
Question 6:
Jhon is working on an ELT process that sources data from six different source systems.
Looking at the source data, he finds that data about the sample people exists in two of six systems.
What does he have to make sure he checks for in his ELT process?
Choose the best answer.
A. Duplicate Data.
B. Redundant Data.
C. Invalid Data.
D. Missing Data.
Correct Answer: C
Duplicate Data.
While invalid, redundant, or missing data are all valid concerns, data about people exists in two of the six systems. As such, Jhon needs to account for duplicate data issues.
Question 7:
Given the following customer and order tables:
Which of the following describes the number of rows and columns of data that would be present after performing an INNER JOIN of the tables?
A. Five rows, eight columns
B. Seven rows, eight columns
C. Eight rows, seven columns
D. Nine rows, five columns
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: This is because an INNER JOIN is a type of join that combines two tables based on a matching condition and returns only the rows that satisfy the condition. An INNER JOIN can be used to merge data from different tables that have a common column or a key, such as customer ID or order ID. To perform an INNER JOIN of the customer and order tables, we can use the following SQL statement:
This statement will select all the columns (*) from both tables and join them on the customer ID column, which is the common column between them. The result of this statement will be a new table that has seven rows and eight columns, as shown below:
The reason why there are seven rows and eight columns in the result table is because:
There are seven rows because there are six customers and six orders in the original tables, but only five customers have matching orders based on the customer ID column.
Therefore, only five rows will have data from both tables, while one row will have data only from the customer table (customer 5), and one row will have no data at all (null values).
There are eight columns because there are four columns in each of the original tables, and all of them are selected and joined in the result table.
Therefore, the result table will have four columns from the customer table (customer ID, first name, last name, and email) and four columns from the order table (order ID, order date, product, and quantity).
Question 8:
Different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database. Which of the following issues will MOST likely arise with this data? (Choose two.)
A. Data accuracy
B. Data constraints
C. Data attribute limitations
D. Data bias
E. Data consistency
F. Data manipulation
Correct Answer: AE
Data accuracy refers to the extent to which the data is correct, reliable, and free of errors. When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of human error, such as typos, misinterpretations, omissions, or duplications.
These errors can affect the quality and validity of the data and lead to incorrect or misleading analysis and decisions.
Data consistency refers to the extent to which the data is uniform and compatible across different sources, formats, and systems.
When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of inconsistency, such as different spellings, abbreviations, formats, or standards. These inconsistencies can affect the integration and comparison of the data and lead to confusion or conflicts.
Therefore, to ensure data quality, it is important to have clear and consistent rules and procedures for data entry, validation, and verification. It is also advisable to use automated tools or methods to reduce human error and inconsistency.
Question 9:
A sales analyst needs to report how the sales team is performing to target. Which of the following files will be important in determining 2019 performance attainment?
A. 2018 goal data
B. 2018 actual revenue
C. 2019 goal data
D. 2019 commission plan
Correct Answer: C
Answer:
C. 2019 goal data To report how the sales team is performing to target, the sales analyst needs to compare the actual sales revenue with the expected or planned sales revenue for the same period. The 2019 goal data is the file that contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019, which is the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve. By comparing the 2019 goal data with the 2019 actual revenue, the sales analyst can calculate the performance attainment, which is the percentage of the goal that was met by the sales team.
Option A is incorrect, as 2018 goal data is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 goal data contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve in 2019.
Option B is incorrect, as 2018 actual revenue is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 actual revenue contains the actual sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not comparable with the 2019 goal data or the 2019 actual revenue.
Option D is incorrect, as 2019 commission plan is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2019 commission plan contains the rules and rates for calculating and paying commissions to the sales team based on their performance attainment, but it does not contain the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019.
Question 10:
An analyst needs to join two tables of data together for analysis. All the names and cities in the first table should be joined with the corresponding ages in the second table, if applicable.
Which of the following is the correct join the analyst should complete. and how many total rows will be in one table?
A. INNER JOIN, two rows
B. LEFT JOIN. four rows
C. RIGHT JOIN. five rows
D. OUTER JOIN, seven rows
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct join the analyst should complete is B. LEFT JOIN, four rows. A LEFT JOIN is a type of SQL join that returns all the rows from the left table, and the matched rows from the right table. If there is no match, the right table will have null values. A LEFT JOIN is useful when we want to preserve the data from the left table, even if there is no corresponding data in the right table1 Using the example tables, a LEFT JOIN query would look like this:
SELECT t1.Name, t1.City, t2.Age FROM Table1 t1 LEFT JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.Name = t2.Name;
The result of this query would be:
Name City Age Jane Smith Detroit NULL John Smith Dallas 34 Candace Johnson Atlanta 45 Kyle Jacobs Chicago 39
As you can see, the query returns four rows, one for each name in Table1. The name John Smith appears twice in Table2, but only one of them is matched with the name in Table1. The name Jane Smith does not appear in Table2, so the age column has a null value for that row.
Question 11:
Which of the following are reasons to create and maintain a data dictionary? (Choose two.)
A. To improve data acquisition
B. To remember specifics about data fields
C. To specify user groups for databases
D. To provide continuity through personnel turnover
E. To confine breaches of PHI data
F. To reduce processing power requirements
Correct Answer: BD
A data dictionary is a collection of metadata that describes the data elements in a database or dataset. It can help improve data acquisition by providing information about the data sources, formats, quality, and usage. It can also help remember specifics about data fields, such as their names, definitions, types, sizes, and relationships.
Therefore, options B and D are correct.
Option A is incorrect because it is not a reason to create and maintain a data dictionary, but a benefit of doing so.
Option C is incorrect because specifying user groups for databases is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a database management system or a security policy.
Option E is incorrect because confining breaches of PHI data is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data protection or encryption system.
Option F is incorrect because reducing processing power requirements is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data compression or optimization system.
Question 12:
Given the following:
Which of the following is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis?
A. Fill in the missing cost where it is null.
B. Separate the table into two tables and create a primary key
C. Replace the extended cost field with a calculated field.
D. Correct the dates so they have the same format.
Correct Answer: D
Correcting the dates so they have the same format is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis. Trend analysis is a method of analyzing data over time to identify patterns, changes, or relationships. To perform a trend analysis, the data needs to have a consistent and comparable format, especially for the date or time variables.
In the example, the date purchased column has two different formats: YYYY-MM-DD and MM/DD/YYYY. This could cause errors or confusion when sorting, filtering, or plotting the data over time.
Therefore, the analyst should correct the dates so they have the same format, such as YYYY-MM-DD, which is a standard and unambiguous format.
Question 13:
Which of the following are reasons to conduct data cleansing? (Select two).
A. To perform web scraping
B. To track KPls
C. To improve accuracy
D. To review data sets
E. To increase the sample size
F. To calculate trends
Correct Answer: CF
Two reasons to conduct data cleansing are:
To improve accuracy:
Data cleansing helps to ensure that the data is correct, consistent, and reliable. This can improve the quality and validity of the analysis, as well as the decision-making and outcomes based on the data12 To calculate trends:
Data cleansing helps to remove or resolve any errors, outliers, or missing values that could distort or skew the data. This can help to identify and measure the patterns, changes, or relationships in the data over time13
Question 14:
Joseph is interpreting a left skewed distribution of test scores. Joe scored at the mean, Alfonso scored at the median, and gaby scored and the end of the tail.
Who had the highest score?
A. Joseph
B. Joe
C. Alfonso
D. Gaby
Correct Answer: C
Alfonso had the highest score. A left skewed distribution is a distribution where the tail is longer on the left side than on the right side, meaning that most of the values are clustered on the right side and there are some outliers on the left side.
In a left skewed distribution, the mean is less than the median, which is less than the mode.
Therefore, Joseph, who scored at the mean, had the lowest score, Gaby, who scored at the end of the tail, had the second lowest score, and Alfonso, who scored at the median, had the highest score.
Reference: Skewness – Statistics How To
Question 15:
Kelly wants to get feedback on the final draft of a strategic report that has taken her six months to develop.
What can she do to get prevent confusion as see seeks feedback before publishing the report?
Choose the best answer.
A. Distribute the report to the appropriate stakeholders via email.
B. Use a watermark to identify the report as a draft.
C. Show the report to her immediate supervisor.
D. Publish the report on an internally facing website.
Correct Answer: B
The best answer is to use a watermark to identify the report as a draft. A watermark is a faint image or text that appears behind the content of a document, indicating its status or ownership. By using a watermark, Kelly can clearly communicate that the report is not final and still subject to changes or feedback.
This can prevent confusion among the readers and avoid any misuse or misinterpretation of the report. The other options are not as effective as using a watermark, as they either do not indicate the status of the report or do not reach the appropriate stakeholders.
Distributing the report via email or publishing it on an internally facing website may not make it clear that the report is a draft and may cause confusion or errors. Showing the report to her immediate supervisor may not get enough feedback from other relevant stakeholders who may have different perspectives or insights.
Reference: How to Add a Watermark in Microsoft Word – Lifewire
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I checked a lot of information but no more free materials related to the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam in 2024.
Is it because there is no market for CASP+?
Or is everyone no longer willing to share the CASP+ exam?
According to my observation, more people go to landing sale sites to look for free content, and fewer and fewer people blog. Google has lowered the ranking of WordPress blogs, so everyone doesn’t know that there are still many good articles in blogs.
The CASP+ network security exam is an advanced Network security certificate aimed at enterprise network security and for future security architects and senior security engineers.
There are many answers to this question. Some people say that to ensure a good mentality, the premise is that you have made the necessary preparations for the exam. My answer is not to magnify those small things too much. What you need to prepare for is to prepare for everything. Get the questions right and enhance your real-world experience through extensive simulation exercises, learn about each question type and answering methods, such as multiple-choice questions, multiple-choice questions, and drag-and-drop activities, as well as the ability to solve problems in a simulated environment.
Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts partial responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?
A. laaS
B. SaaS
C. FaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:
A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
Before a risk assessment inspection, the Chief Information Officer tasked the systems administrator with analyzing and reporting any configuration issues on the information systems and then verifying existing security settings. Which of the following would be BEST to use?
A. SCAP
B. CVSS
C. XCCDF
D. CMDB
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
An HVAC contractor requested network connectivity permission to remotely support/troubleshoot equipment issues at a company location. Currently, the company does not have a process that allows vendors remote access to the corporate network.
Which of the following solutions represents the BEST course of action to allow the contractor access?
A. Add the vendor\’s equipment to the existing network Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN
B. Give the vendor a standard desktop PC to attach the equipment to Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN
C. Establish a certification process for the vendor Allow certified vendors access to the VDI to monitor and maintain the HVAC equipment
D. Create a dedicated segment with no access to the corporate network Implement dedicated VPN hardware for vendor access
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
SIMULATION
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
1.
The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
2.
The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen to port 4022.
3.
The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a single workstation.
4.
All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
5.
All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight days.
6.
All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
7.
Cleartext services are not allowed.
8.
All devices must be hardened when possible.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the PostgreSQL database via SSH.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
A. Check the answer in the explanation below.
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
An organization is preparing to migrate its production environment systems from an on-premises environment to a cloud service. The lead security architect is concerned that the organization\’s current methods for addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud environment.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why traditional methods of addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud?
A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risks.
B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk.
C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider.
D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated.
Correct Answer: C
A makes no sense since the CSP isn’t the data owner
B: Cloud providers could avoid the risk via contract
C: Cloud migrations are always a shared risk responsibility but ultimately the data owner/user has the most risk because they have the most to lose.
D: You can mitigate risks with technical and administrative controls in both cloud and on-premises
Question 7:
A financial institution generates a list of newly created accounts and sensitive information daily. The financial institution then sends out a file containing thousands of lines of data. Which of the following would be the best way to reduce the risk of a malicious insider making changes to the file that could go undetected?
A. Write an SIEM rule that generates a critical alert when files are created on the application server.
B. Implement an FIM that automatically generates alerts when the file is accessed by IP addresses that are not associated with the application.
C. Create a script that compares the size of the file on an hourly basis and generates alerts when changes are identified.
D. Tune the rules on the host-based IDS for the application server to trigger automated alerts when the application server is accessed from the internet.
Correct Answer: B
File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a technology that can detect changes in files, often used to safeguard critical data. Implementing an FIM solution that generates alerts for access by unauthorized IP addresses would ensure that any unauthorized modifications to the file can be detected and acted upon. This helps in mitigating the risk of insider threats, as it would alert to any changes not made through the expected application process.
Question 8:
A company with multiple locations has taken a cloud-only approach to its infrastructure The company does not have standard vendors or systems resulting in a mix of various solutions put in place by each location The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure that the internal security team has visibility into all platforms Which of the following best meets this objective?
A. Security information and event management
B. Cloud security posture management
C. SNMFV2 monitoring and log aggregation
D. Managed detection and response services from a third-party
Correct Answer: A
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company\’s locations.
Question 9:
A security engineer at a company is designing a system to mitigate recent setbacks caused by competitors that are beating the company to market with new products. Several of the products incorporate propriety enhancements developed by the engineer\’s company. The network already includes a SEIM and a NIPS and requires 2FA for all user access. Which of the following systems should the engineer consider NEXT to mitigate the associated risks?
A. DLP
B. Mail gateway
C. Data flow enforcement
D. UTM
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
A developer needs to implement PKI in an autonomous vehicle\’s software in the most efficient and labor-effective way possible. Which of the following will the developer MOST likely implement?
A. Certificate chain
B. Root CA
C. Certificate pinning
D. CRL
E. OCSP
Correct Answer: B
The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle\’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed
and embedded in the vehicle\’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles
An e-commerce company is running a web server on-premises, and the resource utilization is usually less than 30%. During the last two holiday seasons, the server experienced performance issues because of too many connections, and several customers were not able to finalize purchase orders. The company is looking to change the server configuration to avoid this kind of performance issue.
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution?
A. Move the server to a cloud provider.
B. Change the operating system.
C. Buy a new server and create an active-active cluster.
D. Upgrade the server with a new one.
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
A security architect is implementing a SOAR solution in an organization\’s cloud production environment to support detection capabilities. Which of the following will be the most likely benefit?
A. Improved security operations center performance
B. Automated firewall log collection tasks
C. Optimized cloud resource utilization
D. Increased risk visibility
Correct Answer: A
SOAR solutions (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) are designed to help organizations efficiently manage security operations. They can automate the collection and analysis of security data, which improves the performance of a security operations center (SOC) by allowing the security team to focus on more strategic tasks and reduce response times to incidents.
Question 13:
A client is adding scope to a project. Which of the following processes should be used when requesting updates or corrections to the client\’s systems?
A. The implementation engineer requests direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer.
B. The change control board must review and approve a submission.
C. The information system security officer provides the systems engineer with the system updates.
D. The security engineer asks the project manager to review the updates for the client\’s system.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts most of the responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?
A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. FaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?
A. Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.
B. Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.
C. Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.
D. Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.
All say CASP+ has at least 10 years of IT management experience, including at least 5 years of practical technical security experience.
I only agree with half of it. First of all, there are no prerequisites for the CASP+ certification exam, which means that your strength determines everything. All the numbers are just a general overview, so if you have the strength to get the certification And if you can prove your strength, then the time and numbers are not important.
Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without a degree?
I said above that there are no prerequisites, anyone can take the CASP+ certification exam, as long as they have the ability.
Let me tell you a joke:
A person applied for a job, and the HR asked if he had any work experience. The applicant said that I had no experience, HR said that we need experienced people, and the applicant said that I don’t have a job, how can I gain experience.
But you can improve your exam experience through simulation exercises, obtain the CASP+ certificate, and then you can tell my jokes to HR.
What can CompTIA CASP+ do?
CASP+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. The updated CASP+ certification can help certify you in careers such as the following:
Security Architect
Security Engineer
Technical lead analyst
Application security engineer
Companies like the U.S. Army, Dell, Verizon, and Booz Allen Hamilton all look for CASP+ certification in hiring.
I searched for CASP+ on indeed.com using Los Angeles, CA as an example.
You only need to search according to the region you want and the job position you want to get the precise answer, and you can also know the specific salary.
How to Update CompTIA CASP+ 004 Exam Certificate?
You need to know that the guarantee period of any CompTIA certification is three years. To continue to ensure that the certification is valid, you can participate in the CE (Continuing Education) program to protect your vitality and new opportunities and challenges in this field and provide you with a lot of continuous improvement and development. Good effect. You must know that your CASP+ certification needs to accumulate at least 75 continuing education credits (CEU) within three years and upload it to your certification account to ensure that you automatically renew.
I learned about this exam because I had a chat with the Manager in 2023, and he mentioned that I should take the most basic and “simple” exam of CompTIA—Security+. Because they are all multiple-choice questions, 90 questions in 90 minutes, it is very simple in his eyes, especially compared to other advanced security certifications. There is no need to do a lab, set up an environment, or analyze cases, and it is very user-friendly. For students who have just graduated, it is also readily available.
Although I say this, since I took Cisco’s basic network course in college and passed the CCENT exam, I have almost forgotten the basic knowledge related to networks. This Security+ covers network security-related topics based on network knowledge, such as common network attacks, protocols, encryption risk management, etc. From 2022 to the first half of 2023, I was actively preparing for CCL and PTE, and it took me more than a year to have the energy to cope with CompTIA. Next, I will briefly record my preparation process. Some experiences are for reference only.
Security+ 601 or 701?
Since technology is changing with each passing day, the exam will also be updated to adapt to the trends of the times, just like the iPhone is released every year.
CompTIA stipulates that when a version is launched on the market, it will usually be withdrawn from the stage of history three years later. 601 was launched in 2020. It will officially announce its retirement in July 2024 and will not accept registration.
At the same time, his successor is 701. However, CompTIA will introduce successors to the market early to warm up, so 701 can already be taken in November 2023.
SY0-601 and SY0-701 Domains Compared
When I signed up, I was a little hesitant whether to apply for the latest 701 or the more mature 601. Because the versions are different, the content involved is also different.
In general:
The new CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) addresses the latest cybersecurity trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high performance on the job. These skills include:
Assessing the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommending and implementing appropriate security solutions.
Monitoring and securing hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, Internet of Things (IoT), and operational technology (OT).
Operating with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.
Identifying, analyzing, and responding to security events and incidents.
And 20% of exam objectives were updated to include:
Current trends: The latest trends in threats, attacks, vulnerabilities, automation, zero trust, risk, IoT, OT, and cloud environments are emphasized, as well as communication, reporting, and teamwork.
Hybrid environments: The latest techniques for cybersecurity professionals working in hybrid environments that are located in the cloud and on-premises; cybersecurity professionals should be familiar with both worlds.
Let’s take a look at the differences between the 601 and 701 exam domains:
Let’s go through each SY0-701 domain and what each encompasses.
1. General Security Concepts (12%)
This domain dives into the foundational aspects of security, including the CIA triad of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It also introduces various types of security controls like preventive, deterrent, and corrective, and the Zero Trust architecture.
2. Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
This domain focuses on identifying and understanding common threat actors and their motivations, such as nation-states and hacktivists. It also discusses various threat vectors like email, SMS, and vulnerable software.
3. Security Architecture (18%)
This domain centers on secure systems architecture, discussing data types, classifications, and methods to secure data. It also covers high availability considerations like load balancing and site considerations like geographic dispersion.
4. Security Operations (28%)
This is the most heavily weighted domain and covers a wide range of operational activities, including incident response and the importance of automation and orchestration in secure operations. It also discusses using various data sources like logs and vulnerability scans to support security investigations.
5. Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
This domain focuses on the governance aspects of security, summarizing elements of effective security governance like policies and standards. It also goes into risk management processes, strategies, and security awareness practices like phishing recognition and user training.
The next step is to register. It is said that books cannot be read unless they are borrowed, so if you don’t pay and set a time for the exam, you won’t start preparing with all your heart. The scariest thing is not having a deadline, because I always feel like I have time, so I have to be ready before I sign up for the exam.
Realizing that I had delayed for several months, I resolutely clicked on the CompTIA official website to register in December 2023.
The steps for me to register for the exam were a bit detoured. I bought a voucher from the CompTIA official website and then went to Pearson Vue to arrange the exam. You can register directly with Pearson Vue, schedule the exam, and then pay.
The advantage of buying a voucher from the official website is that there are different combinations to choose from, such as training courses, simulation questions, e-books, and re-exams. If you just want to schedule the exam quickly, you can skip step 1 and go to step 2. Go to PearsonVUE to schedule the exam.
1. Go to CompTIA’s official website to buy the voucher
First, I went to the CompTIA official website in the exam area to purchase exam coupons: go to https://store.comptia.org/ to register – login
Then, select Certification Vouchers – check Security+, and you will see that there are currently two versions of Security+ to choose from, with the same price:
Then, enter the version you want to take, taking 701 as an example, click Details:
You will see that there are different combinations to choose from, each containing different products. Scroll down to see the specific information of each bundle. Here I chose the first one simply and rudely, because I felt that I should be able to pass it once without a Retake (the official website also provides training courses, but I have not used them, and I don’t know if they will be as lengthy as the official AWS training).
Then add to cart – pay. Remember, don’t forget to fill in the discount code for children’s shoes, as there is a 10% discount. How to get the discount code will be mentioned later!
After the payment is successful, you will receive an email stating that you have successfully purchased the voucher, and then you will receive the voucher code through another email. So the question is, I just bought a voucher for so long. When and where should I take the exam? How do I book a test?
Because many of these certificate exams are outsourced, you usually go to a Pearson VUE Test Center to take these exams. So, if you check your purchase record at this time, you will see that you have successfully purchased Security+, but you need to go to another place to arrange your exam.
Find your historical order, your voucher information will be displayed on it, then go to Pearson to confirm the exam time and location.
After successful registration, enter the homepage of Pearson CompTIA
All Step:
Select Exam: Security+
Choose the exam code. Generally, there will be only one, unless it is in a transitional period like Security+ 601. The test I took this time was SY0-701.
Currently, many exams provide two options: going to a test center (Test Center) and taking the test at home. However, I heard that there were too many reasons why personal computers could not be connected, network problems, system problems, etc., so I chose to go to the exam center without fear of trouble. Of course, this varies from person to person. If there is no test center near your home and you don’t want to spend time traveling, then the best option is to take the test at home.
Select language
The next step is to confirm the exam interface, make sure you select the one you want to take, and then the price will be displayed.
The next step is to find a nearby test center
Select your ideal date and time
The last step is to pay, enter a voucher code
Since you have already paid on the CompTIA official website, you only need to fill in the voucher code you just received from the CompTIA official website, and you can place an order successfully! Pearson will then email you the test center date and time.
Useful lessons for exam preparation
My preparation process mainly consisted of taking online classes and answering questions at the same time. I recommend this course called Mike Chapple on LinkedIn Learning.
I have also watched some videos on YouTube, but many of them will complicate things. I can explain a concept to you for 20 to 30 minutes.
For candidates with some basic knowledge, it will be a waste of time. Mike’s courses simply and clearly explain to you the knowledge points involved in the exam and directly highlight the key points to remind you of the minefields in the exam, which is simply a blessing for exam fast-foodists like me. However, this course is more suitable for candidates who have a certain foundation of network knowledge.
If you are a newbie, I recommend this course from CB Nuggets:
Keith Barker, the lecturer in this class, is quite humorous and can stir up the atmosphere, so you are less likely to feel drowsy because the content is extremely boring. His course covers a comprehensive range of topics and explains them in detail, including some basic knowledge of Networking such as the OSI model, how to classify IPs, VLANs, etc.
The above are all paid courses that require you to subscribe (monthly or yearly). But LinkedIn will have a 1-month free trial, you can take advantage of it for “free sex” ~~~ At the same time, when you use LinkedIn, remember to download the exam coupon (a PDF document) from Mike Chapple’s course page, at Enter the discount code when registering to get a 10% discount!!!
Preparation materials (mainly exam practice)
Because I thought Mike Chapple spoke very well, I was naturally moved by him and bought his Last Minute Review ($9.99).
This PDF document condenses the important knowledge points involved in the entire exam into 13 pages. You can ask for confirmation when you don’t understand something when answering questions. It helps consolidate knowledge points during the preparation process and quickly browse and memorize before the exam. My feeling is that every word may be a test point.
However, the Last Minute Review I bought at that time was not very comprehensive. I felt that some knowledge points were missing, so I also added a lot of things, which is equivalent to making a complete and unified arrangement.
At the same time, the most important thing is to use the existing question bank. There are many test bank websites for various certificates on the Internet, and some of them are paid. I mainly use Leads4Pass. It has multiple purchase methods, namely PDF and VCE. I paid $45.99 to read the full version of Question 701.
At present, it does not provide free test questions. I saw that other test codes provide free test questions, so I consulted customer service. She told me that because sy0-701 is the latest exam item, free exam questions are not available for the time being.
The preparation process is a cycle of exam practice, summarizing mistakes, reviewing knowledge points – practice tests – summary – review. If you don’t understand anything, you can refer to Leads4Pass, and then watch the relevant course video explanations. If you are still not sure, just Google it.
…
Since time is limited and there is still a lot to express, I will write a separate article about the entire exam process next time! If you find it helpful, please bookmark and follow it! Thanks!
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An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?
A. Firepower
B. Email Security Appliance
C. Web Security Appliance
D. Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?
A. cross-site scripting
B. man-in-the-middle
C. SQL injection
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)
A. privilege escalation
B. DDoS attack
C. phishing
D. man-in-the-middle
E. pharming
Correct Answer: CE
Question 4:
Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?
A. principle of least privilege
B. role-based access control
C. separation of duties
D. trusted computing base
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor. Which type of evidence is this?
A. best evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. indirect evidence
D. physical evidence
Correct Answer: C
There are three general types of evidence:
–> Best evidence: can be presented in court in the original form (for example, an exact copy of a hard disk drive).
–> Corroborating evidence: tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. –> Indirect or circumstantial evidence: extrapolation to a conclusion of fact (such as fingerprints, DNA evidence, and so on).
Question 6:
An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external perimeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified\’? (Choose two.)
A. SOX
B. PII
C. PHI
D. PCI
E. copyright
Correct Answer: BC
Question 7:
While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header. Which technology makes this behavior possible?
A. encapsulation
B. TOR
C. tunneling
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D
Network address translation (NAT) is a method of mapping an IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device.
Question 8:
Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.
B. Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.
C. Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.
D. Use NTFS partition for log file containment
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?
A. transaction data
B. statistical data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
What is the impact of encryption?
A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated
B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals
C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved
D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department\’s servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?
What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?
A. The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete
B. The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete
C. The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection
D. The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?
A. principle of least privilege
B. organizational separation
C. separation of duties
D. needs to know the principle
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface. What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?
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What are two features of Advanced Malware Protection AMP? (Choose Two)
A. Automated Policy Management
B. File Retrospection and Trajectory
C. Dynamic Malware Analysis
D. Automatic Behavioral Authorization
E. Local Threat intelligence
Correct Answer: BC
New Question 2:
Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)
A. Mobile
B. Email
C. Cloud
D. Web
E. Data Center
Correct Answer: CE
New Question 3:
What is one of the key features of Cognitive Intelligence?
A. It enables greater threat intelligence with entity modeling
B. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering
C. It enables safe email usage with event analytics
D. Allows visibility into anonymous and encrypted communications
Correct Answer: D
New Question 4:
What are three security blind spots that must be addressed? (Choose Three)
A. Data
B. Applications
C. IT
D. Networks
E. Workloads
F. Email
Correct Answer: ABE
New Question 5:
What is one of the reasons that customers need a Visibility and Enforcement solution?
A. Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based
B. Businesses can\’t see or protect devices on their network
C. Organizations need the ability to block high-risk websites
D. Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
What are two solutions Cisco offers for email security? (Choose Two)
A. AMP for Email Security
B. Umbrella
C. Meraki
D. Tetration
E. Cloudlock
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 7:
How does AnyConnect provide highly secure access for select enterprise mobile apps?
A. Per application VPN
B. Application Visibility and Control
C. identity Service Engine
D. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Which two security areas are part of Cisco\’s endpoint solutions? (Choose two)
A. Identity and Access Control
B. URL Filtering
C. Remote VPN
D. Cloud App Security
E. Malware Protection
Correct Answer: AE
New Question 9:
What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.
B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers real-time access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.
Correct Answer: AE
New Question 10:
What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)
A. More users
B. More IT professionals
C. More devices
D. More networks
E. More vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 11:
What are two steps organizations must take to secure lot? (Choose Two)
A. remediate malfunctions
B. acquire subscription solutions
C. block contractors
D. update equipment
E. prevent blackouts
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 12:
What does Cisco provide via Firepower\’s simplified, consistent management?
A. Reduced complexity
B. Higher value
C. Improved speed to security
D. Reduced downtime
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
What percent of threats did ASA with FirePOWER block that earned AMP the highest security effectiveness scores in third-party testing?
A. 95.6%
B. 99.2%
C. 98.5%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: D
New Question 14:
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
B. AnyConnect with AMP
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Flexible AAA Options
Correct Answer: A
New Question 15:
What are the three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose Three)
A. Roaming Security
B. VoiceandCollaboration
C. loT Security
D. Cloud Security
E. Advanced Threat
F. Firewalls
Correct Answer: CDE
…
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An engineer is configuring a vSwitch policy in the existing Cisco ACI fabric. The requirement is for the Cisco ACI leaf to learn individual MAC addresses from the same physical port. Which vSwitch policy configuration mode must be enabled to meet this requirement?
A. MAC pinning
B. MAC binding
C. LACP passive
D. LACP active
Correct Answer: A
New Question 2:
An organization deploys active-active data centers and active-standby firewalls in each data center. Which action should be taken in a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod to maintain traffic symmetry through the firewalls?
A. Enable Endpoint Dataplane Learning
B. Disable service node Health Tracking
C. Enable Pod ID Aware Redirection
D. Disable Resilient Hashing
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants to avoid connectivity problems for the endpoint EP1 when it reaches an external L3Out network through the gateway 10.2.2.254/24. Which two configurations must be implemented in BD-BD2? (Choose two.)
A. Disable unicast-routing
B. Enable IP data plane learning for the VRF
C. Disable ARP flooding
D. Enable ARP flooding
E. Enable unicast-routing
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)
A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active
B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning
C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning
D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active
E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive
F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 5:
In a Cisco ACI Multi-Site fabric, the Inter-Site BUM Traffic Allow option is enabled in a specific stretched bridge domain. What is used to forward BUM traffic to all endpoints in the same broadcast domain?
A. ingress replication on the spines in the source site
B. egress replication on the source leaf switches
C. egress replication on the destination leaf switches
D. ingress replication on the spines in the destination site
A leaf receives unicast traffic that is destined for an unknown source, and a spine proxy is enabled in the corresponding bridge domain. Drag and drop the Cisco ACI forwarding operations from the left into the order the operation occurs on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 8:
An engineer designs a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod solution that requires a pair of active-standby firewalls in different pods for external connectivity. How should the firewalls be implemented?
A customer is deploying a new application across two ACI pods that is sensitive to latency and jitter. The application sets the DSCP values of packets to AF31 and CS6, respectively. Which configuration changes must be made on the APIC to support the new application and prevent packets from being delayed or dropped between pods?
A. disable the DSCP translation policy
B. align the ACI QoS levels and IPN QoS policies
C. disable DSCP mapping on the IPN devices
D. align the custom QoS policy on the EPG site in the customer tenant
An engineer created a Cisco ACI environment in which multiple tenants reuse the same contract. The requirement is to prevent inter-tenant communication. Which action meets this requirement?
A. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to VRF and export to other tenants
B. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to the Tenant
C. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to Global and export to other tenants
D. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to Global
Correct Answer: B
New Question 11:
Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)
A. Create vPC+
B. Enable LACP active mode
C. Create PAgP
D. Create vPC
E. Enable MAC pinning
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 12:
An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?
Drag and drop the tenant implementation designs from the left onto the outcomes of the design when a greenfield Cisco ACI fabric is deployed on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
An engineer deploys a Cisco ACI Multi-Site Orchestrator for the first time. Drag and drop the actions from the left into the steps on the right to add a site and deploy new Cisco ACI objects to the fabric. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.
B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.
C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.
D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?
Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)
A. Create vPC+
B. Enable LACP active mode
C. Create PAgP
D. Create vPC
E. Enable MAC pinning
Correct Answer: BE
Question 4:
An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?
A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check
B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control
C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode
D. Disable Remote EP Learn
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?
What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?
A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.
D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. Select a common vPC interface policy group
B. Select individual interface profiles
C. Select common interface profiles
D. Select individual switch profiles
E. Select common switch profiles
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP
B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic
C. contract with no filter
D. permit-all contract filter
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?
Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?
A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED
B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED
C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED
D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs
B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope
C. Change the contract scope to Tenant
D. Change the subject scope to VRF
E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface
Correct Answer: BE
Question 13:
Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.
B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.
C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.
D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.
E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)
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