[Latest Questions] Latest HP HPE0-J74 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

2017 latest high quality HP HPE0-J74 dumps exam training materials and study guide, the best HP HPE0-J74 exam practice questions and answers online free update. 100% success and guarantee to pass HP HPE0-J74 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which software-defined storage (SDS) product is optimized for virtual deployments?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE XP
C. HPE StoreServ
D. HPE MSA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A customer requests phone home support for the company’s HPE StoreVirtual storage platform Which HPE tool should you recommend?
A. HPE Insight Remote Support
B. HPE Service Processor Onsite Customer Care
C. HPE OneView
D. HPE SAN Visibility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to document and performance tunes a customer’s storage infrastructure with an environment that covers the full HPE portfolio. Which management tool can be used to identify backup bottlenecks in the customer’s environment?
A. HPE Navigator
B. HPE SAN Visibility
C. HPE Data Protector Reporter
D. HPE NinjaSTARS
Correct Answer: C
HPE0-J74
QUESTION 4                   HPE0-J74
Which task can you perform using the HPE Server Smart Update tool?
A. update the HPE 3PAR OS Suite
B. update the firmware of HPE StoreFabrics HBAs
C. update the HPE SN6000C 8 Gb Fibre Channel Switch OS
D. configure a basic HPE StoreServ 3PAR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which operating systems support space reclamation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2003 SP2
B. SLES 9 x
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2012
D. VMware vSphere (ESXi) 5 x
E. Ubuntu 12 x
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
You are meeting with a small SMB customer to discuss the requirements of a new storage solution The customer tells you that they require a new consolidated platform to provide file storage with built-in deduplication for no more than 20 Microsoft Windows users The customer has limited Budget and IT skills.
With which HPE product should you start the conversation?
A. HPE StoreOnce
B. HPE StoreVirtual
C. HPE StoreServ
D. HPE StoreEasy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are reviewing an HPE 3PAR solution with a customer who is very interested in space optimization.
What is important emphasize during the presentation?
A. HP 3PAR Data Optimization Software
B. HP 3PAR System Reporter
C. HP 3PAR Adaptive Flash Cache
D. HP 3PAR Thin Technologies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which service is used in a NAS environment, but not a SAN environment?
A. block access services
B. direct access services
C. object access services
D. file access services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which HPE Storage product uses deduplication technology designed by HPE Labs?
A. HPE MSA
B. HPE storeOnce
C. HPE StoreEasy
D. HPE StoreEver
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What are benefits of the HPE StoreServ 3PAR architecture? (Select two.)
A. provides silicon-based hardware acceleration of thin technologies
B. supports direct SAS connection for up to four servers
C. provides iSCSI-based asyncronous remote replication
D. provides a meshed cluster architecture
E. scales out to meet small and medium-size business virtualization needs
Correct Answer: AC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 600-460 Exam Study Materials Free Try

The latest Cisco 600-460 exam Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist products is considered a very important qualification, and the 600-460 exam professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A
600-460 exam
QUESTION 3                 600-460 exam
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of 600-460 exam missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDSDDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

Cisco 600-460 exam Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download 600-460 exam one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 600-455 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist designing Cisco unified contact center Enterprise training resources which are the best for clearing designing Cisco 600-455 exam unified contact center enterprise http://www.passitdump.com/600-455.html Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist.

QUESTION 1
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDSDDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C
600-455 exam
QUESTION 3                                           600-455 exam
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
QUESTION 10Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco 600-455 exam Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC

Read more: http://www.passitdump.com/600-455.html

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-ucced.html

Related: http://www.geturnet.com/latest-cisco-200-105-dumps/

[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-270 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

【100% Pass Guarantee】The best and most accurate Cisco 700-270 exam training materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the Cisco 700-270 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. http://www.passitdump.com/700-270.html 100% success and guarantee to pass 700-270 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which FirePOWER services capability supports seamless processing after an adaptive security appliance stateful failover event?
A. midsession pickup
B. TCP intercept
C. SFR stateful failover
D. FireSIGHT central policy distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum Cisco ASA software version that is required to support FirePOWER services?
A. 9.1.2
B. 8.6
C. 9.2.2
D. 9.4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which recommendation should be made to increase scalability, performance, and resiliency?
A. Create a Cisco ASA failover pair.
B. Upgrade the current Cisco ASA
C. Upgrade from the FirePOWER software module to the hardware module
D. Deploy Cisco ASA clustering.
Correct Answer: D
700-270 exam
QUESTION 4             700-270 exam
Which application is required to support adding user information from Microsoft Active Directory to FirePOWER events?
A. Cisco ASA Identity Firewall
B. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Sourcefire User Agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
With which hardware option must Cisco ASA models below the 5585-X be sold to support FirePOWER services?
A. SSP module
B. FireSIGHT Management Center
C. SSD
D. FirePOWER services bundle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which enhancement is added to URL filtering that is performed by the FirePOWER services module?
A. categories
B. reputation scores
C. regular expressions
D. IP address filters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three options are important when positioning a next-generation firewall solution? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. resistance to evasion
C. current install base
D. interoperability
E. stability
F. nonproprietary
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
How is traffic forwarded from the Cisco ASA to the FirePOWER services module for analysis? 700-270 exam
A. The SFR is transparent and automatically sees all traffic.
B. A service policy redirects traffic from the Cisco ASA packet-processing path to the SFR
C. The SFR has a dedicated data interface
D. The SFR is a standalone appliance that is inserted inline in the data path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. FireSIGHT Management Center
B. Cisco IDM
C. Cisco IME
D. Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In a stateful firewall application, inspection occurs at which layer of the OSI model?
A. 7
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB6-700 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

High quality Microsoft MB6-700 exam practice questions and answers online update free try, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.
【Download Latest Full Version】http://www.passitdump.com/MB6-700.html The best Microsoft MB6-700 exam materials are written according to the latest real IT exams.

Question No : 1
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a project.
For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table). For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group). What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a project purchase order?
A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group
Answer: C
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 2             MB6-700 exam
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is invoiced.
Which type of project should you use?
A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals
Answer: C

Question No : 3
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?
A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You attach an invoice format to the project contract. Which item is controlled by the invoice format setting?
A. invoice output destination
B. invoice currency
C. invoice summarization
D. invoice orientation
Answer: C

Question No : 5
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to define?
A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet
Answer: D

Question No : 6
Which journalizing option is used only for time tracking?
A. No ledger
B. Profit and loss
C. Never ledger
D. Balance
Answer: A
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 7         MB6-700 exam
You need to set up a pay when paid (PWP) term for a project. Which project type should you choose?
A. time and material
B. internal
C. cost
D. fixed-price
Answer: A

Question No : 8
You need to configure worker validation project assignments to ensure that certain projects are available for a specific worker. On which form should you configure this type of validation?
A. project
B. project contract
C. worker
D. project management and accounting parameters
Answer: C

Question No : 9
Which three items are valid project types? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Investment
B. Profit and loss
C. Time
D. Time and material
E. Quotation
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 10
Which two statements about a header project are true? MB6-700 exam (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Transactions cannot be posted to a header project.
B. A header project is designated by the Project group field.
C. Each level of a project hierarchy can have only one project header.
D. A header project must be created at the top level of a hierarchy.
Answer: A,D

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[Latest Questions] Latest ACSM 010-111 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

【latest version】The best and most updated ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training materials, ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. http://www.passitdump.com/010-111.html
【Latest ACSM 100% Pass】All the ACSM 010-111 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 010-111 exam quickly and easily at the first time.

QUESTION 1
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the function of the tricuspid valve?
A. It acts as a pacemaker.
B. To pump blood through the heart.
C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.
D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?
A. Myofibril
B. Sarcomere
C. Myosin
D. Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B
010-111 exam
QUESTION 4                 010-111 exam
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?
A. Greater flexibility of the soleus
B. Lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus
C. Lesser force of action of the knee extensors
D. Lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What two muscles, along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, make up the rotator cuff?
A. Teres minor and scalenus
B. Teres minor and subscapularis
C. Teres major and scalenus
D. Teres major and subscapularis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?
A. Kyphotic curve
B. Scoliotic curve
C. Lordotic curve
D. Myotic curve
Correct Answer: C

010-111 exam QUESTION 12
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.
B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 Exam Study Materials Free Try

Latest and most accurate Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 exam pracice material and real exam study guide. All the 4A0-107 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. High quality Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 certifications Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 exam quality of Service training materials.

Vendor: Alcatel-Lucent
Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Correct Answer: ABD
4A0-107
QUESTION 3
Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4
How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options? 4A0-107
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet’s source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet’s DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
What is an SLA? (Choose two)  4A0-107
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider’s network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider’s network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider’s network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider’s network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider’s network.
Correct Answer: BD

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[Latest Questions] Latest EMC E20-690 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

High quality EMC E20-690 dump exam Platform Engineer VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers training materials. Latest and most accurate EMC E20-690 dump exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers, http://www.passitdump.com/e20-690.html download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What protocols does the Data Mover support?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Correct Answer: A
e20-690
QUESTION 3           E20-690 dump
What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ SAS or twenty-five 3.5″ EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ EFD, SAS or twenty-five 2.5″ SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5″ FC, EFD or twenty-five .2.5″ SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5″ EFD, FC or twenty-five 2.5″ EFD disk drives
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?  E20-690 dump
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-488 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

QUESTION 1
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?  http://www.passitdump.com/070-488.html 070-488 Dumps Exam
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.

070-488

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the Microsoft 070-488 dumps courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 3
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.  070-488 dumps
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a     070-488 dumps
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

The best and most updated Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps exam training materials, we also want you to be able to access them easily, whenever you want. Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps exam training material in PDF format, http://www.passitdump.com/1Z0-052.html which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C

Question No : 2
You want to check the details of few errors that Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps users have reported. You search for the alert log file and execute few commands to find the location of the alert log file.
View the Exhibit and check the commands executed.
1Z0-052
What is the location of the alert_orcl.log file?
A. ORACLE_HOME/dbs
B. ORACEL_HOME/rdbms
C. /u01/app/oracle/admin/orcl/adump
D. /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area
E. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/alert
F. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/trace
Answer: F

Question No : 3
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle 1Z0-052 dumps Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 4
See the Exhibit:
1Z0-052
Which statements are true regarding the USERS tablespace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A bitmap is used to record free extents
B. Free extents information is managed within the tablespace
C. Free extents information is managed in the SYSAUX tablespace
D. The data dictionary tables are updated when extents are allocated or deallocated
Answer: A,B

Question No : 5
You executed the following command to create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 6
In which of the scenario will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 7
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to 1Z0-052 dumps accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 8
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

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