New update Lead4Pass 200-901 Dumps with PDF and VCE|200-901 DEVASC Exam

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Lead4Pass 200-901 exam dumps contain 294 exam questions and answers, covering complete DevNet Associate 200-901 DEVASC certification exam questions, and verified to be true and valid, check here to get the latest Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-901.html (PDF+VCE).

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 24, 2022[Updated July 5, 2022] 200-901 dumps questions
New Question 1:

Which platform is run directly on top of a hypervisor?

A. bare metal systems

B. virtual machines

C. containers

D. applications

Correct Answer: B


New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. A collaboration engineer has developed a script to automate the gathering of information by providing the email address of the individual. When the engineer tests the script, a 401 error is received. Which command fixes the script?

new 200-901 dumps questions 2

A. Add “Authorization”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

B. Add “Authentication”: “Basic ” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

C. Add “:@” in the base_url after “HTTPS://”.

D. Add “Authentication”: “Bearer ” to the headers.

Correct Answer: A


New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. While developing a Cisco Webex bot, an application reaches the public IP address of the firewall, but traffic is forwarded to the IP address of server 1 instead of the IP address of server 2. What causes this issue?

new 200-901 dumps questions 3

A. The proxy server that rewrites traffic is misconfigured.

B. The router is sending the traffic to server 1 instead of server 2.

C. The switch is forwarding IP traffic to the wrong VLAN.

D. NAT is misconfigured on the firewall.

Correct Answer: D


New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 4

A network engineer must collect information from the network. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Cisco Meraki API.

The script must run over nested loops to collect organization and network information and uses the collected data for final collection.

Which process is being automated by using the Python script?

A. Gather the IDs of the ACME organization, the BLDG21 network, and the dents on the network

B. Provide the BLDG21 network information if it is part of the ACME organization

C. Collect the IDs of the clients on the BLDG21 network

D. List the IDs from the ACME organization

Correct Answer: A


New Question 5:

What are the two principles of infrastructure as a code environment? (Choose two.)

A. Components are coupled, and definitions must be deployed for the environment to function.

B. Redeployments cause varying environmental definitions.

C. Environments must be provisioned consistently using the same inputs.

D. Service overlap is encouraged to cater to unique environmental needs.

E. Complete complex systems must be able to be built from reusable infrastructure definitions.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 6:

Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?

A. Webex Teams

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

C. Finesse Gadgets

D. Webex Devices

Correct Answer: A


New Question 7:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

new 200-901 dumps questions 7

Drag and Drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing on the Meraki Python script to create a new network.

Select and Place:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-1

Correct Answer:

new 200-901 dumps questions 7-2
new 200-901 dumps questions 7-3

New Question 8:

Access to the management interface of devices must be restricted by using SSH and HTTPS.

Which two ports must be included in the ACLs for the protocols to work? (Choose two.)

A. 22

B. 23

C. 80

D. 443

E. 880

Correct Answer: AD


New Question 9:

What are the two benefits of managing network configuration via APIs? (Choose two.)

A. more security due to locking out manual device configuration

B. configuration on devices becomes less complex

C. eliminates the need for legacy management protocols like SNMP

D. reduction in network changes performed manually

E. increased scalability and consistency of network changes

Correct Answer: DE


New Question 10:

What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)

A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application

B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities

C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires

D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses

E. allows for the separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host

Correct Answer: AB


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[Update Nov 2022] CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBROPS EXAM MATERIAL

CyberOps Associate 200-201 Dumps is the Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam material for launching your career in cybersecurity operations.

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CyberOps Associate exam FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 200-201 CBROPS: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)
Certification: CyberOps Associate
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 95-105 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
200-201 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-201.html (CyberOps Associate exam dumps maps to Cisco 200-201 CBROPS exam objectives)
200-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 264 Q&A
Last update time: Nov 02, 2022

Is CyberOps Associate certification worth it?

The Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate is regarded by many as a great starting point for cyber security professionals. For instance, it offers enough entry-level fundamental concepts such as cryptography and Security Operations Center (SOC) basics. One of the best things about this cert is the fact that it doesn’t have any prerequisites.

For someone looking to break into cybersecurity, the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate makes sense. It covers key concepts around Cisco hardware and software, but not in too much detail. Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate also teaches you about security operations and is a good way to land a junior analyst role in a SOC.

–source: https://www.cbtnuggets.com/blog/certifications/cisco/new-cisco-certs-ccna-cyberops-vs-ccnp-security

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time[Free share] Update Nov 2022
15Threat Hunting and Defending using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBROPS)Lead4passOct 04, 2022200-201 exam questions 16-28
New Question 1:

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

A. ransomware communicating after infection

B. users downloading copyrighted content

C. data exfiltration

D. user circumvention of the firewall

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q2

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

A. Base64 encoding

B. TLS encryption

C. SHA-256 hashing

D. ROT13 encryption

Correct Answer: B

ROT13 is considered weak encryption and is not used with TLS (HTTPS:443). Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT13


New Question 3:

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

A. sandbox

B. application allows list

C. application block list

D. host-based firewall

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/sandbox#:~:text=Sandboxes%20can%20be%20used%20to,be%20run%20inside%20a%20sandbox


New Question 4:

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

A. An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of attack.

B. An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C. An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D. An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

Correct Answer: B


New Question 5:

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

A. The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B. The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C. The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D. The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 6:

A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?

A. weaponization

B. delivery

C. exploitation

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve evidence.

C. Tampered images are used as evidence.

D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Correct Answer: D

The disk image must be intact for forensics analysis. As a cybersecurity professional, you may be given the task of capturing an image of a disk in a forensic manner. Imagine a security incident has occurred on a system and you are required to perform some forensic investigation to determine who and what caused the attack. Additionally, you want to ensure the data that was captured is not tampered with or modified during the creation of a disk image process. Ref: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide


New Question 8:

What is the difference between an attack vector and an attack surface?

A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack, and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack, and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 9:

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data availability

B. data normalization

C. data signature

D. data protection

Correct Answer: B


New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q10

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

A. Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B. Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C. Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D. Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Correct Answer: D


New Question 11:

What is the function of a command and control server?

A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware

C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise

D. It sends instructions to a compromised system

Correct Answer: D


New Question 12:

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

A. internet

B. transport

C. application

D. data link

Correct Answer: C

A deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection\’s application layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.


New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q13

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q14

What is occurring?

A. Cross-Site Scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack

C. Insecure Deserialization

D. Regular GET requests

Correct Answer: B


New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam q15

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
15Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers (ASASE)Lead4PassUpdated on: Sep 21, 2022Aug 28, 2022
New Question 1:

Which three customer business objectives do Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)

A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management

B. Visibility and control with a managed environment

C. Accelerated firewall implementation

D. Complete protection with holistic defense

E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions

F. Secure communications with advanced access

Correct Answer: BDE

New Question 2:

What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)

A. Malware clustering

B. Threat-based anomaly detection

C. Netflow monitoring

D. Data Loss Prevention

E. Realtime sandboxing

F. Forensic investigation

Correct Answer: BCF

New Question 3:

What are two common seller obstacles? (Choose Two) A. Unresponsive potential customers

B. Seller competition

C. Fragmented solutions

D. Complexity of solution components

E. Overcrowded portfolios

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 4:

Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)

A. Email

B. Mobile

C. Voicemail

D. Data Center

E. Web

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 5:

On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 70

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose Two)

A. advanced analytics

B. reputation analytics

C. intrusion analysis

D. dynamic URL filtering

E. dynamic data analysis

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 7:

What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?

A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources

B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence

C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources

D. Context, telemetry and intelligence sources

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers realtime access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)

A. pxGrid

B. Cisco Security Connector

C. Duo

D. Stealthwatch

E. AMP for Endpoints

Correct Answer: DE

New Question 10:

Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)

A. Industrial Network Director

B. Duo

C. Cisco Security Connector

D. Advanced Malware Protection

E. Identity Services Engine

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 11:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 12:

Which two products are involved in granting safe access to apps? (Choose Two)

A. TrustSec

B. ISE

C. SD-Access

D. Duo

E. ACI

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 13:

Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?

A. Context-aware access

B. Centralized policy management

C. Platform exchange grid

D. Device profiling

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which statement best embodies trust-centric security?

A. Protect users from attacks by enabling strict security policies.

B. Prevent attacks via an intelligence-based policy then detect, investigate, and remediate.

C. Verify before granting access via identity-based policies for users, devices, apps, and locations.

D. Verify before granting access via MDM software.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)

A. Threat Defense

B. Intrusion Analytics

C. Threat Analytics

D. Network Analytics

E. NGFW

F. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: CDF

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New Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Correct Answer: B

New Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express

B. Cisco 8540

C. Cisco 3504

D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

New Question 5:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

What switching product should you lead with for a midmarket customer?

A. Catalyst C9200

B. Catalyst SG 550xG

C. SG250X

D. C2960L

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

What is the one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard

B. remote wipe any device on the network

C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth

D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Which is a SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Correct Answer: C

New Question 11:

What is one challenge commonly facing Express Specialization Networking customers?

A. shrinking IT budget and resource scarcity

B. low number of devices connected to the network

C. do-it-yourself approach to network management

D. large, highly bureaucratic IT departments

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

What is one way that Mx security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability?

A. Always on (availability groups)

B. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)

C. Warm spare (using VRRP)

D. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

What do customers using the ISR 4000 and ISR 1100 series routers need to do to enable the Web User interface?

A. nothing, it is configured by default

B. purchase a license and configure an admin account for up to 5 routers

C. complete a configuration process with help from Cisco support

D. purchase a license for the browser-based system

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

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New Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer needs to set up access to an internal application for external partners.

Which two entities must the engineer configure on the Citrix ADC to support this? (Choose two.)

A. SAML Policy

B. SAMLldP Profile

C. SAMLldP Policy

D. SAML Action

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 2:

Which action ensures that content is retrieved from the server of origin?

A. CACHE

B. MAY_CACHE

C. NOCACHE

D. MAY_NOCACHE

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configures Citrix Web App Firewall to protect an application. Users report that they are NOT able to log on. The engineer enables a Start URL relaxation for the path //login.aspx.

What is the effect of the Start URL relaxation on the application?

A. Access to the path /login.aspx is unblocked.

B. Access to the path /login.aspx is blocked.

C. External users are blocked from the path /login.aspx. Internal users are permitted to the path / login.aspx.

D. Non-administrative users are blocked from the path /login.aspx Administrative users are permitted to the path /login.aspx.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer wants to protect a web application using Citrix Web App Firewall. The engineer enables the Learn action for the Start URL, HTML, Cross-Site Scripting, and HTML SQL Injection protections. The engineer assigns this profile to a policy, which is then bound to the virtual server.

Which two items can the engineer check to determine that the Learn action is NOT capturing any rules? (Choose two.)

A. The HTML Error Object is configured for the profile.

B. Enough space is left on the /flash file system.

C. The aslearn process is running on the Citrix ADC appliance.

D. The Learn database is less than 20 MB.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 5:

A Citrix Engineer wants to delegate management of Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to a junior team member.

Which assigned role will limit the team member to view all application-related data?

A. readonly

B. appReadonly

C. admin

D. appAdmin

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-application-delivery-management- service/setting-up/ configuring- role-based-access-control.html

New Question 6:

A Citrix Engineer wants the Citrix Web App Firewall to respond with a page stored on the Citrix ADC when a violation is detected.

Which profile setting accomplishes this?

A. Redirect URL

B. RFC Profile

C. Default Request

D. HTML Error Object

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX140293

New Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has a pair of Citrix ADC VPX appliances configured as a High- Availability (HA) pair and hosted on a Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer wants to use Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor and manage the 35 web applications on the appliances. The engineer has imported Citrix ADM virtual appliance to Citrix Hypervisor. The engineer has also configured the management IP address settings and has added 35 instances. However, some of the instances are NOT reporting any data.

Which two areas can the engineer check to determine the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. A Premium platform license must be configured on each instance.

B. AppFlow must be enabled on each instance.

C. The Citrix ADM license must be installed.

D. An SSL certificate must be installed on the Citrix ADM appliance.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer implements Application-level Quality of Experience (AppQoE) to protect a web application. Shortly after that, users call to complain that nearly every request is being met with a Captcha.

What can the engineer do to improve the user experience?

A. Disable the Captcha.

B. Increase the DOS Attack Threshold.

C. Increase the Policy Queue Depth.

D. Increase the Session Life.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

In which order is a client request to a protected web application processed?

A. CitrixWebApp Firewall, Load Balancing, Caching, Rewrite

B. Caching, Citrix Web App Firewall, Load Balancing, Rewrite

C. Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Load Balancing, Rewrite

D. Load Balancing, Citrix Web App Firewall, Caching, Rewrite

Correct Answer: C

New Question 10:

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) Analytics page allows an engineer to monitor the metrics of end-point analysis and authentication failures?

A. Gateway Insight

B. HDX Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Security Insight

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer creates a Responder policy to redirect users attempting to access an application protected by Citrix Web App Firewall. Instead of being redirected, users are seeing an `Access Denied\’ page.

This is happening because Citrix Web App Firewall is processed. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. before Responder, and the redirection is invalid

B. after Responder, but the violation is applied to prevent access

C. before Responder, and a violation is occurring

D. after Responder, and the redirection is invalid

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is reviewing the Citrix Web App Firewall log files using the GUI. Upon further analysis, the engineer notices that legitimate application traffic is being blocked.

What can the engineer do to allow the traffic to pass through while maintaining security?

A. Note the protection blocking the traffic in the log entry. Edit the profile and deselect the Block action for protection.

B. Select the check box in the log entry. Choose to Dismiss to allow the traffic to pass through from the Action menu.

C. Note the protection blocking the traffic in the log entry. Create a new profile and policy and bind it with a larger priority number.

D. Select the check box in the log entry. Choose Edit and Deploy to create a relaxation rule from the Action menu.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is monitoring the environment with Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM). Management has asked for a report of high-risk traffic to protected internal websites.

Which dashboard can the engineer use to generate the requested report?

A. App Security

B. Transactions

C. Users and Endpoints

D. App

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has configured Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) to monitor applications presented by Citrix ADC appliances. When reviewing the App Security Dashboard, the engineer finds no data.

What must the engineer do to ensure data is being collected from the applications?

A. Enable AppFlow for Security Insight on the instances in Citrix ADM.

B. Update the password stored in the instance profile on Citrix ADM.

C. Point the default route on Citrix ADM to the subnet with the NSIPs of the Citrix ADC appliances.

D. Enable the Web App Firewall feature on the Citrix ADC appliances.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer configured signature protections for Citrix Web App Firewall. Signature Auto-Update has been enabled. Upon reviewing the log files, the engineer notices that the auto-update process has an error. In the settings for Signature Auto Update, the engineer notices that the URL is blank.

Which URL should the engineer enter to restore the update process?

A. https://s3.amazonaws.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

B. https://download.citrix.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

C. https://www.citrix.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

D. https://citrix.azure.com/NSAppFwSignatures/SignaturesMapping.xml

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX138858

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Share the latest Cisco 300-920 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer must construct an HTTP Request to use the XML API to set a Personal Meeting Room PIN for a given user.

Which code completes the code to create the request?

A. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

B. xmlhttp.open(“PATCH”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

C. xmlhttp.open(“PUT”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

D. xmlhttp.open(“POST”, “https://cisco.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService”);

Correct Answer: D

The post method can be used for HTTP request that sets up a personal metting room PIN for a user.

New Question 2:

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.

B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.

C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\’s “” value to “TRUE”.

D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.

E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 3:

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.

B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.

C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.

D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. The Node.js script shown uses the Webex Meetings XML API to print “Here!” to the console.

Which statement is a correct observation about the results of the script?

A. The was not complex enough.

B. The credential was expired.

C. The WebexMeetings XML API service processed the request.

D. The meeting was created successfully.

Correct Answer: C

The password, although not that good, has capital letters and numbers. Therefore, it is okay. SessionTicket credential is not expired because the error function doesn\’t checks that. We are not sure if the meeting was created successfully however, there is no wrong in the code, therefore, WebEx meetings XML API service has processed the request.

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. A webhook has been created so that an application is notified when users mention a bot in a Webex Teams space. The exhibit shows an example of a notification received by the application. Which code snippet correctly processes the JSON payload using the Webex Node.js SDK in order to print out messages that mention the bot?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording file download links?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Which xAPI access mechanism requires separate connections for commands and notifications?

A. Serial

B. WebSocket

C. HTTP/HTTPS

D. SSH

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Which two capabilities are currently supported by the Webex Meetings XML API? (Choose two.)

A. Request a recording link for playback.

B. Send a text message to the meeting host.

C. Request permissions to schedule on someone else\’s behalf.

D. Schedule a new meeting.

E. Send a problem report.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 9:

Which two statements about Webex Teams refresh tokens are true? (Choose two.)

A. The refresh token is useless without the client ID and client secret.

B. An attacker can use the refresh token to send messages on behalf of the user.

C. The refresh token is used to generate a new access token.

D. A new refresh token cannot be granted until the client ID is invalidated.

E. The refresh token does not expire.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 10:

Which element is needed to build a Web application that authenticates Webex users and can post messages under the user\’s identity?

A. OAuth integration configured with the `messages_write\’ scope

B. bot access token

C. Guest Issuer application

D. self-signed certificate that is created from a public authority

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which Webex Teams REST API request has generated the response body in the exhibit?

A. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=lastactivity

B. GET/v1/rooms?sortBy=created

C. GET/v1/rooms?max=1

D. GET/v1/spaces?orderBy=lastActivity

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. When using the Webex Browser SDK to create calls and share screens, which two statements are valid given a `webex\’ object such as displayed in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. After a meeting is joined, it cannot be left programmatically until the host ends the meeting.

B. The webex meetings.register() function must be invoked before attempting to join any meeting.

C. The joinMeeting() function throws an error of type `media stopped\’ if a media stream is stopped.

D. Given a Webex meeting number the webex meetings join() function can be used to join the meeting.

E. The mediaSettings for a joined meeting accepts boolean attributes to send and receive audio, video, and screen share.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Teams REST API response is shown with the HTTP Header missing.

Which HTTP header is expected in this response?

A. Push

B. Link

C. Patch

D. Put

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company wants to adopt Webex Teams as a messaging platform and use REST APIs to automate the creation of teams and rooms.

Which sequence of REST API requests is needed to create and populate a new Webex team and create a populated Webex room for the team?

A. POST /teams, POST /memberships, POST /rooms

B. POST /teams, POST /people, POST /rooms

C. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms

D. POST /teams, POST /team/memberships, POST /rooms, POST /memberships

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which Webex Teams webhook resource type indicates that a user interacted with a card?

A. buttonActions

B. attachmentActions

C. webhookCardActions

D. cardActions

Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.

Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?

Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?

A. shared tree

B. MDT default

C. source tree

D. MDT voice

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?

A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.

B. The two routers have the same area ID.

C. The two routers have the same network ID.

D. The two routers have different IS-types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.

B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds

C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds

D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.

Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?

A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command

B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route

C. Filter the routes on the receiving router

D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.

Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?

A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2

C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets

B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24

D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?

A. shortest path calculated by IGP

B. dynamic rules

C. path policy

D. explicit maps

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?

A. The two devices have different process IDs

B. The two devices have different network types

C. The two devices have different router IDs

D. The two devices have the same area ID

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

A. type 3 LSA

B. type 4 LSA

C. type 1 LSA

D. type 2 LSA

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?

A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally

B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process

C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process

D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?

A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path

B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis

C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path

D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network

Correct Answer: C

……

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  5. Find free exam resources
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Part of Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

FromNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Lead4Pass15Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless350-401
QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3 from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration setting achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any
router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permits 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer

B. monitor

C. bridge

D. local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 3

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 4

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.

Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

Correct Answer: A

Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.

QUESTION 5:

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice.
Select and Place:

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 6

Correct Answer:

latest cisco 350-401 exam answers 6

QUESTION 7:

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on devices with similar network settings?

A. Command Runner

B. Template Editor

C. Application Policies

D. Authentication Template

Correct Answer: B

Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch.

When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/1-3/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 8:

An engineer must export the contents of the device’s object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 8

A. json.repr(Devices)

B. json.dumps(Devices)

C. json.prints(Devices)

D. json.loads(Devices)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

B. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

C. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

D. Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 10
latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 10-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 11

Which command must be applied to Routed to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

A. Router1(config)#interface tunnel0

B. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

C. Router1(config-if)#tunnel mode gre multipoint

D. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

latest cisco 350-401 exam answers 12

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down.

Which script must the engineer apply?

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


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Braindump4it Exam Table of Contents:

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Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE

 

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers

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QUESTION 1:

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4:

What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5:

Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6:

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7:

An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8:

Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10:

lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE

Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11:

How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.

[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application.
Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

A. Software decompiler
B. Network enumerator
C. Log reduction and analysis tool
D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:

A. cloning disks.
B. analyzing network-captured packets.
C. recovering lost files.
D. extracting features such as email addresses.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?

A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets.
B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources.
C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed.
D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
B. Implement certificate-based authentication.
C. Verify MD5 hashes.
D. Compress the program with a password.
E. Encrypt with 3DES.
F. Make the DACL read-only.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
B. a zero-day attack.
C. an advanced persistent threat.
D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers

CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test

CAS-004 Q1:

A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:

cas-004 q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?

A. SQL injection
B. XSS scanning
C. Fuzzing
D. Brute forcing

CAS-004 Q2:

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.

The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.

CAS-004 Q3:

Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:

cas-004 q3

A. Log reduction
B. Network enumerator
C. Fuzzer
D. SCAP scanner

CAS-004 Q4:

An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:

cas-004 q4

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist.
B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS.
C. Wrap the application before deployment.
D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.

CAS-004 Q5:

A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?

A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.

A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.

CAS-004 Q6:

A technician is reviewing the following log:

cas-004 q6

Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?

A. NIPS
B. DLP
C. NGFW
D. SIEM

CAS-004 Q7:

To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions.
Which of the following approaches is described?

A. Blue team
B. Red team
C. Black box
D. White team

CAS-004 Q8:

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

CAS-004 Q9:

During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’.
B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.

Reference: https://docs.rapid7.com/insightvm/elevating-permissions/

CAS-004 Q10:

Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?

A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure.
Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.

CAS-004 Q11:

An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

A. $0
B. $7,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $15,000

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

CAS-004 Q12:

A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network.
Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?

A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing.
B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media.
C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack.
D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.

Verify the answer:

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AADBABCACCBBB

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