[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 exam practice questions and success secrets

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Cisco 200-901 dumps Exam Questions Develop valid exam questions and answers around the 200-901 DEVASC certification core:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability

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200-901 DEVASC – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devasc-200-901.html

This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

……

[Updated 2022] Get Complete Free Cisco 200-901 Exam Questions and Answers

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf

QUESTION 2

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
exhibit.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup
file)

QUESTION 3

Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6

What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.

QUESTION 7

Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/

QUESTION 8

Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/

QUESTION 9

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 10
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest

QUESTION 11

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
A.
Correct Answer: See below.

QUESTION 12

Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. XHTML
D. BER
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html

QUESTION 13

Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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SY0-601 dumps [Updated 2022] Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ exam

CompTIA Security plus 2022

SY0-601 dumps have been updated to prepare for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam.

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You can also practice some sy0-601 dumps questions online first:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string Which of the following would be the BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A. head
B. Tcpdump
C. grep
D. rail
E. curl
F. openssi
G. dd

QUESTION 2:

The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST address this security concern?

A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.
B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental system’s network.

QUESTION 3:

Users at organizations have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized programs. However, some users have administrative access to their workstations to enable legacy programs to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address this issue?

A. Application code signing
B. Application whitelisting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

QUESTION 4:

A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

QUESTION 5:

A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive
C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

QUESTION 6:

A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users\’ passwords.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

QUESTION 7:

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

QUESTION 8:

A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the access point to improve security.
Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)

A. RADIUS
B. PEAP
C. WPS
D. WEP-TKIP
E. SSL
F. WPA2-PSK

QUESTION 9:

A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

QUESTION 10:

A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed order processing.
The business owner now needs to ensure two things:
1.
Protection from power outages
2.
Always-available connectivity In case of an outage
The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following would BEST fulfill the owner\’s second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.
B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability
D. Replace the business\’s wired network with a wireless network.

QUESTION 11:

An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leaves the organization. Which of the following will be the organization MOST likely to implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

QUESTION 12:

Given the following logs:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?

A. Rainbow table
B. Dictionary
C. Password spraying
D. Pass-the-hash

QUESTION 13:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations.
Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice
B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding

……

Publish the answer:

Number:Answers:Explain:
Q1ACA – “analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly” C – “search the entire series of requests for a particular string”
Q2D
Q3BApplication whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/application-whitelisting
Q4A
Q5D
Q6C
Q7B
Q8AF
Q9B
Q10C
Q11B
Q12C
Q13A

[Google Drive] Download the sy0-601 dumps question and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_ij2vKQ_V5lWRMAfyPhC_vzDXyIPfzHI/

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam has undergone many changes, SY0-101, SY0-201, SY0-301, SY0-401, SY0-501 to now SY0-601, no matter when you use Lead4Pass
Dumps materials are available to help you successfully pass the objective exam. To pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam today, just download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-601.html and make sure you pass the exam 100%.

The latest updated PT0-002 dumps serve all CompTIA PT0-002 PenTest+ exam candidates

The newly updated CompTIA PT0-002 dumps provides 162 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the PT0-002 PenTest+ exam.

The CompTIA PT0-002 PenTest+ exam is for cybersecurity professionals responsible for penetration testing and vulnerability management, and you can use the PDF and VCE exam engine provided by the Lead4Pass PT0-002 dumps to learn all the exam knowledge to help you accomplish your mission.

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Experience a selection of the latest CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps exam questions and answers

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromPDF Download
13CompTIA PenTest+ Certification ExamLead4Passpt0-002 pdf
NEW QUESTION 1:

A security assessor is attempting to craft specialized XML files to test the security of the parsing functions during ingest into a Windows application. Before beginning to test the application, which of the following should the assessor request from the organization?

A. Sample SOAP messages
B. The REST API documentation
C. A protocol fuzzing utility
D. An applicable XSD file

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2:

User credentials were captured from a database during an assessment and cracked using rainbow tables. Based on the ease of compromise, which of the following algorithms was MOST likely used to store the passwords in the database?

A. MD5
B. bcrypt
C. SHA-1
D. PBKDF2

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/understanding-rainbow-table-attack/

NEW QUESTION 3:

A penetration tester is starting an assessment but only has publicly available information about the target company. The client is aware of this exercise and is preparing for the test. Which of the following describes the scope of the assessment?

A. Partially known environment testing
B. Known environment testing
C. Unknown environment testing
D. Physical environment testing

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4:

A manager calls upon a tester to assist with diagnosing an issue within the following:
Python script: #!/user/bin/python s = “Administrator”
The tester suspects it is an issue with string slicing and manipulation Analyze the following code segment and drag and drop the correct output for each string manipulation to its corresponding code segment Options may be used once or not at all.

Select and Place:

CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps exam q4

Correct Answer:

CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps exam q4-1

NEW QUESTION 5:

A penetration tester was conducting a penetration test and discovered the network traffic was no longer reaching the client\’s IP address. The tester later discovered the SOC had used a sinkhole on the penetration tester\’s IP address.

Which of the following BEST describes what happened?

A. The penetration tester was testing the wrong assets
B. The planning process failed to ensure all teams were notified
C. The client was not ready for the assessment to start
D. The penetration tester had incorrect contact information

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

Running a vulnerability scanner on a hybrid network segment that includes general IT servers and industrial control systems:

A. will reveal vulnerabilities in the Modbus protocol.
B. may cause unintended failures in control systems.
C. may reduce the true positive rate of findings.
D. will create a denial-of-service condition on the IP networks.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hsdl.org/?viewanddid=7262

NEW QUESTION 7:

A penetration tester ran a ping –A command during an unknown environment test, and it returned a 128 TTL packet.

Which of the following OSs would MOST likely return a packet of this type?

A. Windows
B. Apple
C. Linux
D. Android

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.freecodecamp.org/news/how-to-identify-basic-internet-problems-with-ping/

NEW QUESTION 8:

A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy the requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project?

A. Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities.
B. Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team.
C. Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network.
D. Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9:

When preparing for an engagement with an enterprise organization, which of the following is one of the MOST important items to develop fully prior to beginning the penetration testing activities?

A. Clarify the statement of work.
B. Obtain an asset inventory from the client.
C. Interview all stakeholders.
D. Identify all third parties involved.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

The results of a Nmap scan are as follows:

Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST

Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )

The host is up (0.0102s latency).

Not shown: 998 filtered ports

Port State Service

80/TCP open HTTP

|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/HTML)

|_http-slowloris-check:

| VULNERABLE:

| Slowloris DoS Attack

|Device type: bridge|general purpose

Running (JUST GUESSING): QEMU (95%)

OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu

No exact OS matches were found for the host (test conditions non-ideal).

OS detection was performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.

Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds

Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)

A. Network device
B. Public-facing web server
C. Active Directory domain controller
D. IoT/embedded device
E. Exposed RDP
F. Print queue

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 11:

A software company has hired a penetration tester to perform a penetration test on a database server. The tester has been given a variety of tools used by the company\’s privacy policy. Which of the following would be the BEST to use to find vulnerabilities on this server?

A. OpenVAS
B. Nikto
C. SQLmap
D. Nessus

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/blog/best-penetration-testing-tools

NEW QUESTION 12:

A security company has been contracted to perform a scoped insider-threat assessment to try to gain access to the human resources server that houses PII and salary data. The penetration testers have been given an internal network starting position.

Which of the following actions, if performed, would be ethical within the scope of the assessment?

A. Exploiting a configuration weakness in the SQL database
B. Intercepting outbound TLS traffic
C. Gaining access to hosts by injecting malware into the enterprise-wide update server
D. Leveraging a vulnerability on the internal CA to issue fraudulent client certificates
E. Establishing and maintaining persistence on the domain controller

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13:

A company recruited a penetration tester to configure wireless IDS over the network. Which of the following tools would BEST test the effectiveness of the wireless IDS solutions?

A. Aircrack-ng
B. Wireshark
C. Wifite
D. Kismet

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://purplesec.us/perform-wireless-penetration-test/

Download the CompTIA PT0-002 PDF 2022:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/17L47_KDIP0cQJapPpfYFN5yjBJBkT3Wg/

You can use these to improve yourself, but the free CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps exam questions will only help you warm up, I still recommend using the latest updated CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/pt0-002.html Helping you complete your CompTIA PT0-002 PenTest+ exam mission.

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Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications | Provide learning materials

Whether you are a novice or an exam candidate, you can use this article as your learning object, I will share the most popular online complete knowledge and learning materials.

With the advancement of society, the online world has become more and more complex, various network security problems have arisen, and the opportunities for bad actors to steal, damage or destroy are also increasing. The increase in cybercrime is driving the demand for cybersecurity professionals.
The job outlook for studying cybersecurity has grown accordingly.

Do you know that there is a lot of network security knowledge in this world, if you are a novice, you will be confused about how to choose. Below I will share a picture of the most popular network security certification in the world, if you don’t know how to do it, then choose the most popular, This is definitely not wrong.

The following table shows more than 300 different cybersecurity certifications searched on three popular recruiting sites, LinkedIn, Indeed, and Simply Hired, and these 10 certifications appear the most in total U.S. job listings (The data is from last year and is for reference only.)

source: https://www.coursera.org/articles/popular-cybersecurity-certifications

1.Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Earning a CISSP demonstrates your ability to effectively design, implement, and manage a best-in-class cybersecurity program.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/CISSP

Provide learning materials:

CISSP practice test:examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

2. Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)

Prove your expertise in IS/IT auditing, controls and security and rank among the most qualified in the industry.

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cisa

Provide learning materials:

CISA practice test: examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

3. Certified Information Security Manager (CISM)

ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification demonstrates expertise in information security governance, project development and management, incident management, and risk management.

CISM work practices are valid until 31 May 2022

Updated CISM exam content syllabus effective from 1 June 2022

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cism

Provide learning materials:

CISM practice test: micvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

4. Security+

CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the essential skills required to perform core security functions and pursue a career in IT security.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security

Provide learning materials:

Security+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

5. Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques, and methods that hackers and information security professionals use to break into organizations legally.

https://www.eccouncil.org/programs/certified-ethical-hacker-ceh/

Provide learning materials:

CEH practice test: latestvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

6. GIAC Security Essentials Certification (GSEC)

The GIAC Security Fundamentals (GSEC) certification validates a practitioner’s knowledge of information security, not just simple terms and concepts.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/security-essentials-gsec/

Provide learning materials:

GSEC practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no

7.Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)

Implement, monitor and manage IT infrastructure using security best practices, policies and procedures developed by (ISC)²’s cybersecurity experts.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/SSCP

Provide learning materials:

SSCP practice test: no
PDF download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-HW8f-R1b2-m5l99Y8mUD0U1bP-S_TAE/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

8. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers responsible for leading and improving enterprise cybersecurity readiness.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Provide learning materials:

CASP+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

9. GIAC Certified Incident Handler (GCIH)

The GIAC Incident Handler certification verifies a practitioner’s ability to detect, respond to, and resolve computer security incidents using a broad range of fundamental security skills.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/certified-incident-handler-gcih/

Provide learning materials:

GCIH practice test: no
PDF Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1sBIEb96vghkRmlbD-gLhjigSAw9dHiAi/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: no

10. Offensive Security Certified Professional (OSCP)

Offensive Security’s OSCP has become one of the most sought-after certifications for penetration testers. This exam tests your ability to compromise a range of targeted computers using multiple exploitation steps and generates a detailed penetration test report for each attack.

https://www.offensive-security.com/pwk-oscp/

Provide learning materials:

OSCP practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no
PDF + VCE download: no

Is Cybersecurity Certification Worth It?

A survey by (ISC)² found that 70% of cybersecurity professionals surveyed in the U.S. require employer certification.
According to the same study, security certifications can also lead to big pay raises. The right credentials can also make you more attractive to recruiters and hiring managers alike.

P.s. Latest Updated CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat mode?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”

QUESTION 2:

A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of errors that correlate with users\’ reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rale
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: A

where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within 60 minutes.
Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/rpo-and-rto-understanding-the-differences/

QUESTION 5:

A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?

A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers
B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment
C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?

A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and finally to production systems.

B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then apply them to the production systems

C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a staging environment

D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them in a testing environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).

A. Password and security question
B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8:

A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?

A. inability to authenticate
B. Implied trust
C. Lack of computing power
D. Unavailable patch

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

A. Race condition testing
B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output: Which of the following Is the analyst observing?

A. IGMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

To further secure a company\’s email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the company\’s domain Which of the following is being used?

A. PFS
B. SPF
C. DMARC
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hot-spots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

A. Evil twin
B. Rogue access point
C. On-path attack

Correct Answer: B

……

CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lJ911sJMs1cOPYD3MCKznr89c5s5KTn5/view?usp=sharing

View 572 Exam Questions And Answers

Real Dumps Questions For 220-1002 Exam CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2

The CompTIA 220-1002 exam is related to the CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2,
It tests your operating system installation and configuration, extended security, software troubleshooting, and operating procedures. The new CompTIA 220-1002 dumps questions are real and help you test questions covering the knowledge points and skills tested.
Real dumps questions are online to ensure you can pass the 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2 exam on the first try.

Try to test CompTIA A+ 220-1002 free dumps.

QUESTION 1:

The IT department has installed new software in the folder C:\Program Files\Business Application. Ann, a user, runs the business application and tries to save her work. When doing so, Ann receives the following error:
Cannot save file C: \Program Files\Business Application\file1.wrk ?Access is denied.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure solution to this error?

A. Add Ann to the local Power Users group
B. Set the software to save to the %APPDATA% folder
C. Add Ann to the local administrator group
D. Give Ann write access to C:\Program Files\
E. Give Ann permission to elevate her permissions through a UAC prompt

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2:

A user is unable to open a document on a shared drive from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands would help the user gain access to the document?

A. chmod
B. lfconfig
C. pwd
D. grep

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A technician determines a newly installed service is keeping a device from functioning in Windows. Which of the following tools should the technician use to keep the service from being loaded on the PC reboot?

A. Task Scheduler
B. MSINFO32
C. System Restore
D. MSConfig

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A user lives in a location that experiences frequent lightning storms. Which of the following would be the LEAST expensive solution to protect the user\’s computer hardware?

A. A surge protector
B. Grounding
C. A power generator
D. An uninterruptible power supply

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

During a network server outage, the administrator’s computer received an IP address of 169.254.0.10 and had no access to internal or external resources. Which of the following should be configured to ensure the administrator\’s computer retains network access?

A. Alternative IP address
B. Wake-on-LAN
C. APIPA
D. Proxy setting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A technician installed a new video card into a computer but did not connect the second monitor. When the technician boots the computer, it shows a blue screen during boot and automatically restarts.
The technician is able to boot into safe mode successfully.
Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Install the second monitor.
B. Replace the video card
C. Install updated video drivers.
D. Disable the antivirus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge
B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination
C. Protects against accidental scratches
D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A systems administrator created a policy that should create a shortcut on a user\’s desktop Shortly after the policy was created, a technician inspects the user\’s desktop and notices the shortcut is not present. The administrator verifies that the policy was created correctly and that it is being applied to the user\’s account.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue Immediately without interrupting the user\’s session?

A. gpupdate /force
B. gpupdate /boot
C. gpupdate /logoff
D. gpupdate /target:computer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following operating systems has versions for servers, workstations, and phones?

A. Android
B. iOS
C. Chrome OS
D. Windows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Joe, an end-user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system.
Which of the following authentication methods is being requested?

A. Single-factor
B. Multifactor
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A security director is designing a company\’s disaster recovery procedure. The information security officer wants the servers to continue to function during short power outages, and important documents should be stored off-site in case of a catastrophe at the data center.
Which of the following would BEST fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Power distribution unit
B. UPS
C. Cloud storage
D. Surge protector
E. Local file replication
F. RAID

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12:

Ann, an employee, has been trying to use a company-issued mobile device to access an internal file share while traveling abroad. She restarted the device due to a mobile OS update, but she is now unable to access company information Ann calls the help desk for assistance, and a technician verifies she can make calls and access websites
Which of the following should the technician suggest NEXT to try to fix the issue?

A. Navigate to the VPN profile in the device settings,delete the pre-shared key. and restart the device
B. Instruct Ann to open the company\’s MDM application to ensure proper functionality
C. Navigate to the corporate intranet page and use hyperlinks to access the file share.
D. Instruct Ann to disable TLS 1.0 in the device settings

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following are methods used to prevent an unauthorized computer from establishing a connection as a node on a corporate network? (Select TWO.)

A. Port security
B. Anti-malware
C. Certificate
D. IDS
E. Firewall
F. Captive portal

Correct Answer: AE

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SK0-005 Dumps Update V14.02 Guaranteed CompTIA Server+ Exam Pass

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SK0-005 Free dumps to help you learn part

The questions for SK0-005 were last updated on April 23, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 122 questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards
B. Reflective glass
C. Security guards
D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard

QUESTION 2:

A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible

B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested retransmission of the write from the controller

C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly

D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.backblaze.com/blog/what-smart-stats-indicate-hard-drive-failures/

QUESTION 3:

A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 443

Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/ras/manage-remote-clients/install/step-1-configure-the-remote-access-infrastructure

QUESTION 4:

A Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port 514 against the Syslog server. However, the Syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the Syslog server is not responding?

A. The Syslog server is down.
B. Telnet does not work on UDP.
C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514
D. The log is full on the Syslog server.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
C. The local hosts file is blank
D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?

A. SSO
B. LDAP
C. TACACS
D. MFA

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

QUESTION 7:

A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:

A. hardware is UEFI compliant
B. volume is formatted as GPT
C. volume is formatted as MBR
D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?

A. Connect the server to a KVM
B. Use cable management
C. Connect the server to a redundant network
D. Connect the server to a UPS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 53
E. 443
F. 636

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/dns_best_practices

QUESTION 10:

Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

A. Overwrite the backups
B. Clone the configuration
C. Run a restore test
D. Check the media integrity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?

A. Differential
B. Snapshot
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/incremental-backup

QUESTION 12:

A company\’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company\’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?

A. Disable port 389 on the server
B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
D. Enable port 389 for web traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.auditmypc.com/tcp-port-637.asp https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/66908/is-port-389-on-ad-in-anyway-used-or-required- when.html

QUESTION 13:

A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company\’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management\’s priorities? (Choose two.)

A. Differential
B. Synthetic full
C. Archive
D. Full
E. Incremental
F. Open file

Correct Answer: AB

……


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CS0-002 Dumps [2022] Prep for CompTIA CySA+ Exam

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The questions for CS0-002 were last updated on April 24, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-12 out of 769 questions:

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst has received information from a third-party intelligence-sharing resource that indicates employee accounts were breached. Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take to address the issue?

A. Audit access permissions for all employees to ensure the least privilege.
B. Force a password reset for the impacted employees and revoke any tokens.
C. Configure SSO to prevent passwords from going outside the local network.
D. Set up privileged access management to ensure auditing is enabled.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

An organization used a third party to conduct a security audit and discovered several deficiencies in the cybersecurity program. The findings noted many external vulnerabilities that were not caught by the vulnerability scanning software, numerous weaknesses that allowed lateral movement, and gaps in monitoring that did not detect the activity of the auditors. Based on these findings, which of the following would be the BEST long-term enhancement to the security program?

A. Quarterly external penetration testing
B. Monthly tabletop scenarios
C. Red-team exercises
D. Audit exercises

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A cybersecurity analyst is supporting an incident response effort via threat intelligence. Which of the following is the analyst MOST likely executing?

A. Requirements analysis and collection planning
B. Containment and eradication
C. Recovery and post-incident review
D. Indicator enrichment and research pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

An analyst is participating in the solution analysis process for a cloud-hosted SIEM platform to centralize log monitoring and alerting capabilities in the SOC. Which of the following is the BEST approach for supply chain assessment when selecting a vendor?

A. Gather information from providers, including data center specifications and copies of audit reports.
B. Identify SLA requirements for monitoring and logging.
C. Consult with senior management for recommendations.
D. Perform a proof of concept to identify possible solutions.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

In web application scanning, static analysis refers to scanning:

A. the system for vulnerabilities before installing the application.
B. the compiled code of the application to detect possible issues.
C. an application that is installed and active on a system.
D. an application that is installed on a system that is assigned a static IP.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/static-analysis-static-code-analysis

QUESTION 6:

During an incident, a cybersecurity analyst found several entries in the web server logs that are related to an IP with a bad reputation. Which of the following would cause the analyst to further review the incident?

A. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /etc/passwd” 403 1023
B. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /index.html?src=../.ssh/id_rsa” 401 17044
C. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=/etc/passwd” 403 11056
D. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /a.php?src=../../.ssh/id_rsa” 200 15036
E. BadReputationIp – – [2019-04-12 10:43Z] “GET /favicon.ico?src=../usr/share/ icons” 200 19064

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A company\’s data is still being exfiltered to business competitors after the implementation of a DLP solution. Which of the following is the most likely reason why the data is still being compromised?

A. Printed reports from the database contain sensitive information
B. DRM must be implemented with the DLP solution
C. Users are not labeling the appropriate data sets
D. DLP solutions are only effective when they are implemented with disk encryption

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.vaultize.com/blog/-enterprise-drm-and-dlp-are-amazing-together.html

QUESTION 8:

A large organization wants to move account registration services to the cloud to benefit from faster processing and elasticity. Which of the following should be done FIRST to determine the potential risk to the organization?

A. Establish a recovery time objective and a recovery point objective for the systems being moved
B. Calculate the resource requirements for moving the systems to the cloud
C. Determine recovery priorities for the assets being moved to the cloud-based systems
D. Identify the business processes that will be migrated and the criticality of each one
E. Perform an inventory of the servers that will be moving and assign priority to each one

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following attacks can be prevented by using output encoding?

A. Server-side request forgery
B. Cross-site scripting
C. SQL injection
D. Command injection
E. Cross-site request forgery
F. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

During an investigation, a security analyst determines suspicious activity occurred during the night shift over the weekend. Further investigation reveals the activity was initiated from an internal IP going to an external website. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation to prevent the activity from happening in the future?

A. An IPS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
B. An IDS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
C. A firewall rule that will block port 80 traffic
D. A firewall rule that will block traffic from the specific IP addresses

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) for a large manufacturing organization has noticed a significant number of unknown devices with possible malware infections are on the organization\’s corporate network. Which of the following would work BEST to prevent the issue?

A. Reconfigure the NAC solution to prevent access based on a full device profile and ensure antivirus is installed.
B. Segment the network to isolate all systems that contain highly sensitive information, such as intellectual property.
C. Implement certificate validation on the VPN to ensure only employees with the certificate can access the company network.
D. Update the antivirus configuration to enable behavioral and real-time analysis on all systems within the network.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

A development team is testing a new application release. The team needs to import existing client PHI data records from the production environment to the test environment to test accuracy and functionality. Which of the following would BEST protect the sensitivity of this data while still allowing the team to perform the testing?

A. Deidentification
B. Encoding
C. Encryption
D. Watermarking

Correct Answer: A

……


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[2022 New] Microsoft AZ-900 Exam Tips Questions and Latest Updates AZ-900 Dumps

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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-900

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are
provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling
or purchasing cloud based solutions and services, or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services,
as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational-level knowledge around cloud services.
Technical IT experience is not required, however, some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

Skills measured

  • The content of this exam will be updated on May 28, 2020. NOTE: the updates that were announced prior to April 15, 2020 will be implemented on September 15, 2020. The updates now planned for May 28 are minor updates to wording; please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing on May 28.
  • Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
  • Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
  • Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
  • Understand Azure pricing and support (20-25%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Authorization is the process of verifying a user\\’s credentials.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Authentication
C. Federation
D. Ticketing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to cloud infrastructure and for implementing
consistency across the Azure environment.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Resource groups provide
C. Azure Resource Manager provides
D. Management groups provide
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company plans to deploy an Artificial Intelligence (AI) solution in Azure.
What should the company use to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics solutions?
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Machine Learning Studio
C. Azure Batch
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You plan to store 20 TB of data in Azure. The data will be accessed infrequently and visualized by using Microsoft
Power BI.
You need to recommend a storage solution for the data.
Which two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Data Lake
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Data Warehouse
D. Azure SQL Database
E. Azure Database for PostgreSQL
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office
C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only
D. Contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a high-latency network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You plan to migrate several servers from an on-premises network to Azure.
You need to identify the primary benefit of using a public cloud service for the servers.
What should you identify?
A. The public cloud is owned by the public, NOT a private corporation
B. The public cloud is a crowd-sourcing solution that provides corporations with the ability to enhance the cloud
C. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member of the public
D. The public cloud is a shared entity whereby multiple corporations each use a portion of the resources in the cloud
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
All Azure services that are in public preview are provided without any documentation.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. only configurable from Azure CLI
C. excluded from the Service Level Agreements
D. only configurable from the Azure portal
Correct Answer: C
Preview features are made available to you on the condition that you accept additional terms which supplement the
regular Azure terms. The supplemental terms state:
“PREVIEWS ARE PROVIDED “AS-IS,” “WITH ALL FAULTS,” AND “AS AVAILABLE,” AND ARE EXCLUDED FROM
THE SERVICE LEVEL AGREEMENTS AND LIMITED WARRANTY.”
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/preview-supplemental-terms/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group
named RG1.
From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1.
az VM create –resource-group RG1 –name VM1 — image
UbuntuLTS –generate-ssh-keys
You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command.
Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From PowerShell, sign in to Azure and then run the
command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is required to use Azure Cost Management?
A. a Dev/Test subscription
B. Software Assurance
C. an Enterprise Agreement (EA)
D. a pay-as-you-go subscription
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/cost-management/overview-cost-mgt

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
You plan to implement an Azure database solution.
You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements:
Can add data concurrently from multiple regions
Can store JSON documents
Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

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Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-upgrade-azure-subscription https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/billing/billing-spending-limit

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the purpose of a KVM switch?

A. To allow the user to access multiple files
B. To allow the user to utilize multiple printers
C. To allow the user to connect to multiple networks
D. To allow the user to control multiple computers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

A user was working on several documents located at \\networkshare\ files and was able to save them before taking a break. The user returned and attempted to open the network path but then received the following error message: File location is invalid The user was also unable to access Internet sites. A technician began troubleshooting and was able to ping the file server by IP address. Which of the following issues was the user MOST likely experiencing?

A. The DNS server was unreachable.
B. The NTP server was not available.
C. The DHCP lease had expired.
D. The APIPA address was incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A workstation has RAID 1 and RAID 5 arrays. Although performance is not degraded, management software is reporting a hard disk failure.
Which of the following should a technician do NEXT?

A. Check one of the RAID 1 disks for failure
B. Rebuild the RAID 1 disks for failure
C. Check one of the RAID 5 disks for failure
D. Rebuild the RAID 5 array

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A technician upgraded the memory on a server from two 8GB sticks to eight 32GB. The server memory is now at full capacity per the user guide. When the technician powers on the system, only 128 GB of memory is recognized by the OS and the BIOS. The technician decides to upgrade to the latest version of the firmware on the system, which does not help. Next, the technician installs the memory in sets of 64GB at a time. Each individual set of 64GB is fully recognized by the server.
Which of the following will not allow the server to recognize all of the memory installed at the same time?

A. The power supply is not supplying enough power for the memory.
B. The memory has too many ECC errors and is shutting down
C. The server is overheating when all of the memory is installed.
D. The server needs DDR4 memory, and DDR3 is installed.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

After a technician installs hardware and turns on a system the PC does not complete POST and only displays a black screen Which of the following should the technician try FIRST to fix the issue?

A. Flash the BIOS
B. Reimage the system
C. Reseat the memory
D. Change the boot order

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A user primed a report on a workgroup inkjet printer, but the pages have smeared Ink on them. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST to address this Issue?

A. if the print quality setting is set to best
B. If there is no debris In the paper path
C. If the correct media type is selected
D. If the print heads are calibrated

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician is setting up a WiFi-enabled thermostat for a customer, but the customer is concerned about IoT devices getting hacked.
Which of the following BEST address the customer\’s concerns? (Choose two.)

A. Use the latest encryption standard on the wireless network and set a strong password.
B. Enable two-factor authentication for the IoT device\’s cloud account, if it is available.
C. Separate the IoT thermostat by segregating it in a DMZ network.
D. Disable wireless access on the thermostat to make it unshakable.
E. Upgrade the customer\’s router to the latest version to improve network security.
F. Upgrade the customer\’s wireless network encryption to WPA.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

A technician is building a custom desktop and has loaded an OS through PXE boot The technician configures the OS, but the computer will not startup. Which of the following must be modified to allow the computer to startup?

A. Secure boot configurations
B. Internal connectors
C. Bootini file
D. Boot options
E. Front panel connections

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A user reports that when powering up a computer, only a blank screen appears, however, the computer functioned properly the day before. A technician looks at the computer and verifies the power light is on and the fans are working properly when powering on the computer. Which of the following is the MOST likely the cause of the issue?

A. CPU
B. PSU
C. FDD
D. SSD

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

A technician just replaced the ink cartridges in an office inkjet printer; however, the printer still does not produce sufficient print quality. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?

A. Buy a new printer.
B. Clean the heads.
C. Replace the maintenance kit.
D. Replace the heating element.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

A customer wants to upgrade a PC\’s internal storage to have more room to store backups, photos, and videos. The new storage should be large enough to avoid expanding again next year.
Which of the following BEST meets these needs?

A. 3TB HDD
B. 50GB NAS
C. 500TB SAN
D. 512GB SSD

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

A technician is setting up a BYOD smartphone to access corporate collaborative resources.
Which of the following will MOST likely be synchronized to the corporate network? (Choose two.)

A. Email
B. Calendar
C. Location data
D. E-books
E. Passwords
F. Applications

Correct Answer: AB

……


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CompTIA Network+ Exam [2022] New N10-008 Dumps

The N10-008 exam for CompTIA Network+ certification was released in September 2021. Currently, both N10-007 and N10-008 are available for CompTIA Network+ certification. Compared to the N10-007 exam, the N10-008 exam will validate the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on. Lead4Pass offers new N10-008 dumps questions that are real to ensure you can pass the CompTIA Network+ certification exam.

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1. A network administrator is reviewing interface errors on a switch. Which of the following indicates that a switchport is receiving packets in excess of the configured MTU?

A. CRC errors
B. Giants
C. Runts
D. Flooding

 

2. Which of the following WAN technologies swaps the header on a packet when internally switching from one provider router to another?

A. ATM
B. Frame relay
C. MPLS
D. PPP

 

3. A technician has completed configuration on a new satellite location. The location has a new firewall and a small internal network. The technician has been asked to perform basic vulnerability testing.

Which of the following tools would BEST assist the technician in verifying the security of the site?

A. Packet sniffer
B. Bandwidth tester
C. Port scanner
D. Protocol analyzer

 

4. Which of the following is true about an IP address if the first bit is a one and the second bit is a zero?

A. The address is a Class A address.
B. The address is a Class B address.
C. The address is a Class C address.
D. The address is a Class D address.

 

5. Kim, a network administrator, should consult which documentation sources FIRST to determine the cause of recent network issues?

A. Network map
B. Cable management
C. Change management
D. Asset management

 

6. Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial cable?

A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9

 

7. A company requires a disaster recovery site to have equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at its main datacenter. The company does not have the budget to mirror all the live data to the disaster recovery site.

Which of the following concepts should the company select?

A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Cloud site

 

8. A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?

A. Coaxial
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6e
D. Multimode fiber

 

9. A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company\\’s address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page.

Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?

A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT

Reference: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of-domain-redirects-301-302-url-redirects-url-frame-and-cname/#:~:text=CNAME%20record%20is%20actually%20not,often%20mistakenly%20used%20as%20such.andtext=In%20other%20words%2C%20CNAME%20record,address%20of%20the%20destination%20hostname

 

10. A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing.

Which of the following should the company deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service?

A. QoS
B. Load balancing
C. High availability
D. Fiber optics

 

11. Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Star

 

12. Which of the following ports are associated with IMAP? (Choose two.)

A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 587
E. 993
F. 995

Reference: https://billing.precedence.com.au/billing/knowledgebase/70/Mail-Ports-for-POP3-IMAP-and-SMTP.html

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