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Cisco CCNP Service Provider 300-510 dumps exam questions and answers:
New Question 1:
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 2:
DRAG DROP
An engineer is troubleshooting end-to-end customer traffic across an MPLS VPN service provider network.
Which tasks should the engineer use to solve the routing issues?
Drag and drop the table types from the left onto the most useful troubleshooting tasks/router types on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 3:
DRAG DROP
Drag the IPv6 tunneling mechanisms on the left to match the correct manual or automatic tunneling category on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 4:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the features from the left into the order of operations for SRv6 SRH field creation and forwarding on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
First – next header Second – routing type Third – segments left Fourth – last entry Fifth – segment list sixth – packet is forwarded
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit. Which tree does multicast traffic follow?
A. shared tree
B. MDT default
C. source tree
D. MDT voice
Correct Answer: B
Question 6:
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.
B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 milliseconds
C. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 milliseconds
D. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 seconds
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.
Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?
A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate command
B. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-route
C. Filter the routes on the receiving router
D. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-route
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.
Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?
A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
What is used by SR-TE to steer traffic through the network?
A. shortest path calculated by IGP
B. dynamic rules
C. path policy
D. explicit maps
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
For which reason can two devices fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship?
A. The two devices have different process IDs
B. The two devices have different network types
C. The two devices have different router IDs
D. The two devices have the same area ID
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?
A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Which statement about enabling segment routing for IGPs is true?
A. Segment routing must first be enabled under then routing process and then globally
B. Segment routing must first be enabled globally and then under the routing process
C. Segment routing can be enabled only under the routing process
D. Segment routing can be enabled only globally
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
Which task is performed when troubleshooting LDP?
A. Execute the ping utility to generate information about the MAC addresses used along the path
B. Verify that MPLS is disabled globally and enabled on the necessary interfaces in a per-interface basis
C. Execute the traceroute utility to generate information about the labels used along the path
D. Verify that Cisco Express Forwarding has been disabled on the network
Correct Answer: C
……
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Part of Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3 from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration setting achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]
A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in
B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permits 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in
C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in
D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2:
Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?
A. sniffer
B. monitor
C. bridge
D. local
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?
A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.
B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.
C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.
D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.
QUESTION 5:
How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?
A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF
B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors
C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.
D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7:
Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on devices with similar network settings?
A. Command Runner
B. Template Editor
C. Application Policies
D. Authentication Template
Correct Answer: B
Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch.
When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.
An engineer must export the contents of the device’s object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?
A. json.repr(Devices)
B. json.dumps(Devices)
C. json.prints(Devices)
D. json.loads(Devices)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?
A. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch
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Cisco 350-801 Practice testing questions from Youtbe
What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?
A. Cisco IM and Presence node
B. Cisco Unified Border Element
C. Cisco Expressway
D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?
A. Attempt Forward routing rule
B. Alternate Extensions
C. Alternate Names
D. Mobile User
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?
A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.
B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.
C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.
D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)
A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.
B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.
D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.
E. Voice packets are classified and marked.
Correct Answer: AE
Question 5:
A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user
C. Active Directory
D. Cisco IM and Presence
Correct Answer: C
[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers
Share Cisco 350-801 exam questions for free
QUESTION 1:
A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?
A. Cisco PVDM4-128 B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?
A. third-party SIP device B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?
A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.
B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?
A. route pattern B. service parameters C. IP phone D. gateway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues. B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account. C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files. D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.
An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?
A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds B. configure a single route pattern for international calls C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8:
Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?
A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID) B. Timestamp C. Sequence number D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?
A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference B. H.225 Black Setup Destination C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference
Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. REGISTER B. UPDATE C. PACK D. NOTIFY E. SUBSCRIBE
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11:
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters. B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported. C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements. D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?
A. clock source line B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking. C. clocking source internal D. clocking source network
An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?
A. Device(config)# mgcp enable B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable C. Device (config) # com-manager active D. Device (config)# mgcp
Correct Answer: D
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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?
CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018
Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.
Retirement: April 5, 2022
CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021
Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.
Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.
[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers
QUESTION 1:
A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application. Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?
A. Software decompiler B. Network enumerator C. Log reduction and analysis tool D. Static code analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2:
A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:
A. cloning disks. B. analyzing network-captured packets. C. recovering lost files. D. extracting features such as email addresses.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3:
A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?
A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets. B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources. C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed. D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4:
A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party. B. Implement certificate-based authentication. C. Verify MD5 hashes. D. Compress the program with a password. E. Encrypt with 3DES. F. Make the DACL read-only.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5:
A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites. The technician will define this threat as:
A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack. B. a zero-day attack. C. an advanced persistent threat. D. an on-path attack.
Correct Answer: A
[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers
CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test
CAS-004 Q1:
A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:
Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?
A. SQL injection B. XSS scanning C. Fuzzing D. Brute forcing
CAS-004 Q2:
The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 >
128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 >
128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 >
128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 >
128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 >
128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?
A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.
B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.
C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.
D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.
The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.
CAS-004 Q3:
Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:
A. Log reduction B. Network enumerator C. Fuzzer D. SCAP scanner
CAS-004 Q4:
An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:
Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?
A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist. B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS. C. Wrap the application before deployment. D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.
CAS-004 Q5:
A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?
A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality. B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office. C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution. D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.
A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.
CAS-004 Q6:
A technician is reviewing the following log:
Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?
A. NIPS B. DLP C. NGFW D. SIEM
CAS-004 Q7:
To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions. Which of the following approaches is described?
A. Blue team B. Red team C. Black box D. White team
CAS-004 Q8:
Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)
A. Unsecure protocols B. Use of penetration-testing utilities C. Weak passwords D. Included third-party libraries E. Vendors/supply chain F. Outdated anti-malware software
CAS-004 Q9:
During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?
A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’. B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host. C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames. D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits. E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value. For example: Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure. Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing. Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.
CAS-004 Q11:
An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?
A. $0 B. $7,500 C. $10,000 D. $12,500 E. $15,000
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment
CAS-004 Q12:
A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network. Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?
A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing. B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media. C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack. D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.
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How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?
A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing
B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results
C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations
D. clients can access the results immediately
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)
A. multi-platform vendor abstraction
B. compiles to executables that run on network devices
C. designed to reflect networking concepts
D. directly maps to JavaScript
E. command-line driven interface
Correct Answer: AC
Question 3:
Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?
A. layer 2 switch
B. proxy server
C. router
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
……
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Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development? A. processes and tools over teams and interactions B. detailed documentation over working software C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 5
What is the benefit of edge computing? A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source. B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources. C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together. D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.
What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.) A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files. B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history. C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files. D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation. E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.
Correct Answer: AC
Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.
QUESTION 7
Which description of a default gateway is true? A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic. B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table. C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses. D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.
FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to complete the statement. Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string “____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication. A. Correct Answer: See below. QUESTION 10 Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests? A. cacheable B. stateless C. uniform interface D. client-server
FILL BLANK Fill in the blanks to complete the statement. Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format. A. Correct Answer: See below.
QUESTION 12
Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.) A. XML B. JSON C. XHTML D. BER E. plain text
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Answers are announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1:
A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string Which of the following would be the BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).
A. head B. Tcpdump C. grep D. rail E. curl F. openssi G. dd
QUESTION 2:
The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST address this security concern?
A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi. B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi. C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points. D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental system’s network.
QUESTION 3:
Users at organizations have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized programs. However, some users have administrative access to their workstations to enable legacy programs to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address this issue?
A. Application code signing B. Application whitelisting C. Data loss prevention D. Web application firewalls
QUESTION 4:
A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?
A. Verification B. Validation C. Normalization D. Staging
QUESTION 5:
A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?
A. Port B. Intrusive C. Host discovery D. Credentialed
QUESTION 6:
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users\’ passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?
A. OAuth B. SSO C. SAML D. PAP
QUESTION 7:
A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?
A. Default system configuration B. Unsecure protocols C. Lack of vendor support D. Weak encryption
QUESTION 8:
A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the access point to improve security. Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)
A. RADIUS B. PEAP C. WPS D. WEP-TKIP E. SSL F. WPA2-PSK
QUESTION 9:
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 6
QUESTION 10:
A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed order processing. The business owner now needs to ensure two things: 1. Protection from power outages 2. Always-available connectivity In case of an outage The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following would BEST fulfill the owner\’s second need?
A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access. B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS. C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability D. Replace the business\’s wired network with a wireless network.
QUESTION 11:
An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leaves the organization. Which of the following will be the organization MOST likely to implement?
A. CBT B. NDA C. MOU D. AUP
QUESTION 12:
Given the following logs:
Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?
A. Rainbow table B. Dictionary C. Password spraying D. Pass-the-hash
QUESTION 13:
Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations. Which of the following documents did Ann receive?
A. An annual privacy notice B. A non-disclosure agreement C. A privileged-user agreement D. A memorandum of understanding
……
Publish the answer:
Number:
Answers:
Explain:
Q1
AC
A – “analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly” C – “search the entire series of requests for a particular string”
Q2
D
Q3
B
Application whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/application-whitelisting
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A security assessor is attempting to craft specialized XML files to test the security of the parsing functions during ingest into a Windows application. Before beginning to test the application, which of the following should the assessor request from the organization?
A. Sample SOAP messages B. The REST API documentation C. A protocol fuzzing utility D. An applicable XSD file
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2:
User credentials were captured from a database during an assessment and cracked using rainbow tables. Based on the ease of compromise, which of the following algorithms was MOST likely used to store the passwords in the database?
A penetration tester is starting an assessment but only has publicly available information about the target company. The client is aware of this exercise and is preparing for the test. Which of the following describes the scope of the assessment?
A. Partially known environment testing B. Known environment testing C. Unknown environment testing D. Physical environment testing
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 4:
A manager calls upon a tester to assist with diagnosing an issue within the following: Python script: #!/user/bin/python s = “Administrator” The tester suspects it is an issue with string slicing and manipulation Analyze the following code segment and drag and drop the correct output for each string manipulation to its corresponding code segment Options may be used once or not at all.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
NEW QUESTION 5:
A penetration tester was conducting a penetration test and discovered the network traffic was no longer reaching the client\’s IP address. The tester later discovered the SOC had used a sinkhole on the penetration tester\’s IP address.
Which of the following BEST describes what happened?
A. The penetration tester was testing the wrong assets B. The planning process failed to ensure all teams were notified C. The client was not ready for the assessment to start D. The penetration tester had incorrect contact information
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 6:
Running a vulnerability scanner on a hybrid network segment that includes general IT servers and industrial control systems:
A. will reveal vulnerabilities in the Modbus protocol. B. may cause unintended failures in control systems. C. may reduce the true positive rate of findings. D. will create a denial-of-service condition on the IP networks.
A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy the requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project?
A. Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities. B. Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team. C. Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network. D. Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team.
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9:
When preparing for an engagement with an enterprise organization, which of the following is one of the MOST important items to develop fully prior to beginning the penetration testing activities?
A. Clarify the statement of work. B. Obtain an asset inventory from the client. C. Interview all stakeholders. D. Identify all third parties involved.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10:
The results of a Nmap scan are as follows:
Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST
Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )
The host is up (0.0102s latency).
Not shown: 998 filtered ports
Port State Service
80/TCP open HTTP
|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/HTML)
|_http-slowloris-check:
| VULNERABLE:
| Slowloris DoS Attack
|Device type: bridge|general purpose
Running (JUST GUESSING): QEMU (95%)
OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu
No exact OS matches were found for the host (test conditions non-ideal).
OS detection was performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.
Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds
Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)
A. Network device B. Public-facing web server C. Active Directory domain controller D. IoT/embedded device E. Exposed RDP F. Print queue
Correct Answer: AB
NEW QUESTION 11:
A software company has hired a penetration tester to perform a penetration test on a database server. The tester has been given a variety of tools used by the company\’s privacy policy. Which of the following would be the BEST to use to find vulnerabilities on this server?
A security company has been contracted to perform a scoped insider-threat assessment to try to gain access to the human resources server that houses PII and salary data. The penetration testers have been given an internal network starting position.
Which of the following actions, if performed, would be ethical within the scope of the assessment?
A. Exploiting a configuration weakness in the SQL database B. Intercepting outbound TLS traffic C. Gaining access to hosts by injecting malware into the enterprise-wide update server D. Leveraging a vulnerability on the internal CA to issue fraudulent client certificates E. Establishing and maintaining persistence on the domain controller
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 13:
A company recruited a penetration tester to configure wireless IDS over the network. Which of the following tools would BEST test the effectiveness of the wireless IDS solutions?
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Whether you are a novice or an exam candidate, you can use this article as your learning object, I will share the most popular online complete knowledge and learning materials.
With the advancement of society, the online world has become more and more complex, various network security problems have arisen, and the opportunities for bad actors to steal, damage or destroy are also increasing. The increase in cybercrime is driving the demand for cybersecurity professionals. The job outlook for studying cybersecurity has grown accordingly.
Do you know that there is a lot of network security knowledge in this world, if you are a novice, you will be confused about how to choose. Below I will share a picture of the most popular network security certification in the world, if you don’t know how to do it, then choose the most popular, This is definitely not wrong.
The following table shows more than 300 different cybersecurity certifications searched on three popular recruiting sites, LinkedIn, Indeed, and Simply Hired, and these 10 certifications appear the most in total U.S. job listings (The data is from last year and is for reference only.)
ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification demonstrates expertise in information security governance, project development and management, incident management, and risk management.
CISM work practices are valid until 31 May 2022
Updated CISM exam content syllabus effective from 1 June 2022
CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the essential skills required to perform core security functions and pursue a career in IT security.
Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques, and methods that hackers and information security professionals use to break into organizations legally.
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers responsible for leading and improving enterprise cybersecurity readiness.
The GIAC Incident Handler certification verifies a practitioner’s ability to detect, respond to, and resolve computer security incidents using a broad range of fundamental security skills.
10. Offensive Security Certified Professional (OSCP)
Offensive Security’s OSCP has become one of the most sought-after certifications for penetration testers. This exam tests your ability to compromise a range of targeted computers using multiple exploitation steps and generates a detailed penetration test report for each attack.
OSCP practice test: no PDF + VCE download: no PDF + VCE download: no
Is Cybersecurity Certification Worth It?
A survey by (ISC)² found that 70% of cybersecurity professionals surveyed in the U.S. require employer certification. According to the same study, security certifications can also lead to big pay raises. The right credentials can also make you more attractive to recruiters and hiring managers alike.
P.s. Latest Updated CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1:
A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat mode?
A. Hacktivists B. White-hat hackers C. Script kiddies D. Insider threats
Correct Answer: A
Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”
QUESTION 2:
A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of errors that correlate with users\’ reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?
A. False rejection B. Cross-over error rate C. Efficacy rale D. Attestation
Correct Answer: A
where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.
QUESTION 3:
A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?
A. NIC Teaming B. Port mirroring C. Defense in depth D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4:
An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within 60 minutes. Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:
A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?
A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?
A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and finally to production systems.
B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then apply them to the production systems
C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a staging environment
D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them in a testing environment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).
A. Password and security question B. Password and CAPTCHA C. Password and smart card D. Password and fingerprint E. Password and one-time token F. Password and voice
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8:
A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?
A. inability to authenticate B. Implied trust C. Lack of computing power D. Unavailable patch
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:
Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?
A. Race condition testing B. Proper error handling C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM D. Input sanitization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output: Which of the following Is the analyst observing?
A. IGMP spoofing B. URL redirection C. MAC address cloning D. DNS poisoning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
To further secure a company\’s email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the company\’s domain Which of the following is being used?
A. PFS B. SPF C. DMARC D. DNSSEC
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12:
Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hot-spots?
A. Footprinting B. White-box testing C. A drone/UAV D. Pivoting
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?
A. Evil twin B. Rogue access point C. On-path attack
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QUESTION 1:
The IT department has installed new software in the folder C:\Program Files\Business Application. Ann, a user, runs the business application and tries to save her work. When doing so, Ann receives the following error: Cannot save file C: \Program Files\Business Application\file1.wrk ?Access is denied. Which of the following would be the MOST secure solution to this error?
A. Add Ann to the local Power Users group B. Set the software to save to the %APPDATA% folder C. Add Ann to the local administrator group D. Give Ann write access to C:\Program Files\ E. Give Ann permission to elevate her permissions through a UAC prompt
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2:
A user is unable to open a document on a shared drive from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands would help the user gain access to the document?
A. chmod B. lfconfig C. pwd D. grep
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
A technician determines a newly installed service is keeping a device from functioning in Windows. Which of the following tools should the technician use to keep the service from being loaded on the PC reboot?
A. Task Scheduler B. MSINFO32 C. System Restore D. MSConfig
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
A user lives in a location that experiences frequent lightning storms. Which of the following would be the LEAST expensive solution to protect the user\’s computer hardware?
A. A surge protector B. Grounding C. A power generator D. An uninterruptible power supply
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5:
During a network server outage, the administrator’s computer received an IP address of 169.254.0.10 and had no access to internal or external resources. Which of the following should be configured to ensure the administrator\’s computer retains network access?
A. Alternative IP address B. Wake-on-LAN C. APIPA D. Proxy setting
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6:
A technician installed a new video card into a computer but did not connect the second monitor. When the technician boots the computer, it shows a blue screen during boot and automatically restarts. The technician is able to boot into safe mode successfully. Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?
A. Install the second monitor. B. Replace the video card C. Install updated video drivers. D. Disable the antivirus.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?
A. Protects against accidental static discharge B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination C. Protects against accidental scratches D. Protects against accidental water damage
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
A systems administrator created a policy that should create a shortcut on a user\’s desktop Shortly after the policy was created, a technician inspects the user\’s desktop and notices the shortcut is not present. The administrator verifies that the policy was created correctly and that it is being applied to the user\’s account. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue Immediately without interrupting the user\’s session?
A. gpupdate /force B. gpupdate /boot C. gpupdate /logoff D. gpupdate /target:computer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9:
Which of the following operating systems has versions for servers, workstations, and phones?
A. Android B. iOS C. Chrome OS D. Windows
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10:
Joe, an end-user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system. Which of the following authentication methods is being requested?
A. Single-factor B. Multifactor C. RADIUS D. TACACS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11:
A security director is designing a company\’s disaster recovery procedure. The information security officer wants the servers to continue to function during short power outages, and important documents should be stored off-site in case of a catastrophe at the data center. Which of the following would BEST fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Power distribution unit B. UPS C. Cloud storage D. Surge protector E. Local file replication F. RAID
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12:
Ann, an employee, has been trying to use a company-issued mobile device to access an internal file share while traveling abroad. She restarted the device due to a mobile OS update, but she is now unable to access company information Ann calls the help desk for assistance, and a technician verifies she can make calls and access websites Which of the following should the technician suggest NEXT to try to fix the issue?
A. Navigate to the VPN profile in the device settings,delete the pre-shared key. and restart the device B. Instruct Ann to open the company\’s MDM application to ensure proper functionality C. Navigate to the corporate intranet page and use hyperlinks to access the file share. D. Instruct Ann to disable TLS 1.0 in the device settings
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13:
Which of the following are methods used to prevent an unauthorized computer from establishing a connection as a node on a corporate network? (Select TWO.)
A. Port security B. Anti-malware C. Certificate D. IDS E. Firewall F. Captive portal
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SK0-005 Free dumps to help you learn part
The questions for SK0-005 were last updated on April 23, 2022.
Viewing questions 1-13 out of 122 questions:
QUESTION 1:
Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?
A. Bollards B. Reflective glass C. Security guards D. Security cameras
A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?
A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested retransmission of the write from the controller
C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly
D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
A Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port 514 against the Syslog server. However, the Syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the Syslog server is not responding?
A. The Syslog server is down. B. Telnet does not work on UDP. C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514 D. The log is full on the Syslog server.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5:
A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?
A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure C. The local hosts file is blank D. The server is not joined to the domain
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?
A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:
A. hardware is UEFI compliant B. volume is formatted as GPT C. volume is formatted as MBR D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?
A. Connect the server to a KVM B. Use cable management C. Connect the server to a redundant network D. Connect the server to a UPS
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:
A company\’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company\’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?
A. Disable port 389 on the server B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443 C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637 D. Enable port 389 for web traffic
A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company\’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management\’s priorities? (Choose two.)
A. Differential B. Synthetic full C. Archive D. Full E. Incremental F. Open file
