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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has a full deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You install Windows Server 2012 on a new server.
You need to ensure that you can configure the Dynamics CRM settings on Server1 from Server2 by using Windows
PowerShell.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Deployment Tools server role
B. The Developer Toolkit for Microsoft Dynamics CRM
C. The OrgDBOrgSettings tool
D. The Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are asked to identify the benefits of performing an in-place upgrade instead of a migration that uses a new instance
of Microsoft SQL Server. Which two benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Easiest to recover if a database failure occurs
B. Minimizes hardware costs
C. Easiest to perform
D. Minimizes downtime
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your company signs an agreement with a hosting company that will host Dynamics CRM for your company.
The hosting company implements a new deployment of Dynamics CRM for your company. You need to import one of
the existing organizations to the new
deployment of Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From Deployment Manager, modify the existing organization.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a backup of the organization database.
C. From File Explorer, copy the .mdb files. D. From the Dynamics CRM web application, export the site map.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains a server named Server1.
Server1 has the following components installed:
All of the Dynamics CRM Front End Server roles
All of the Dynamics CRM Back End Server roles
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
Microsoft SQL Server
From Deployment Manager, you disable Server1.
Which two components will stop? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer service
B. Sandbox Processing Service
C. The SQL Server service
D. SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
E. Email Integration Service
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are planning the deployment of Microsoft SQL Server for a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015. The planned
deployment will contain a standby copy of the SQL databases in a remote data center. You need to recommend a
solution for keeping the standby databases up-to-date.
What should you recommend?
A. Database mirroring
B. AlwaysOn Availability Groups
C. File Replication Service (FRS)
D. Transaction log shipping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. The server runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to change the user account used to start the Dynamics CRM services in the least amount of time possible.What should you use?
A. Deployment Manager
B. Add or remove programs
C. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You complete the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
You need to ensure to that users on the Internet can access the deployment.
What should you create?
A. A Kerberos delegation in Active Directory
B. A service connection point (SCP) in Active Directory
C. A zone delegation in the internal DNS zone
D. A record in the external DNS zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015.
You import a new organization to the deployment.
Which statement accurately describes what occurs when you import the new organization?
A. The tables from the new organization are merged into the existing organization.
B. The existing organization is removed.
C. The existing databases are removed.
D. You are prompted to upgrade to Dynamics CRM Server 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing EmailUsers will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a server that has Dynamics CRM 2013 and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions installed.
You plan to upgrade to Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to ensure that the server uses the Dynamics CRM 2015 version of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting
Extensions.
What should you do?
A. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics
CRM 2015, and then install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions.
B. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015
Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
C. Upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015, and then perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions.
D. Perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from
Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A user named Admin1 recently installed Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to instruct Admin1 to prepare the installation to meet the following requirements:
Another user named Admin2 must be able to create an organization.
Five users must be able to manage Dynamics CRM 2015 data.
Only the required client access licenses (CALs) must be purchased.
Which three tasks should you instruct Admin1 to do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.A. From Deployment Manager, add Admin2.
B. Purchase five CALs.
C. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add Admin2.
D. From Deployment Manager, add the five users.
E. Purchase seven CALs.
F. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add the five users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
You are evaluating the deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
All users will access the deployment from the internal network only by using several different client types.
You need to identify which client types require an Internet-facing deployment.
Which three client types should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Dynamics CRM for Android
B. Dynamics CRM for iPad
C. Dynamics CRM web application
D. Dynamics CRM for Windows Phone 8
E. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 to five internal users on the network and to five external users.
Only the internal users will create workflows. All of the users will use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to recommend which licenses must be purchased for the planned deployment. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you recommend?
A. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and one External
Connector (EC) license
B. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five Professional CALs
C. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five
Professional CALs
D. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Professional client access licenses (CALs), and one ExternalConnector (EC) license
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
is installed on a different server.
You implement an Internet-facing deployment by using the default configurations and ports. You have an organization
named CRM in a domain named
contoso.com.
You need to identify which URL users must use to access the Dynamics CRM deployment from the Internet.
Which URL should you identify?
A. http://crm.contoso.com/default.aspx
B. https://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
C. http://crm.contoso.com:443
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
E. http://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message
header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook. What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement correctly describes the backup and restore capabilities of Microsoft System Center 2012 for Dynamics
CRM 2015?
A. System Center 2012 can use the VSS writer to back up the Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 databases used by
Dynamics CRM 2015.
B. System Center 2012 can provide automatic failover of the Dynamics CRM 2015 databases.
C. System Center 2012 can be used to perform granular restores of individual objects in Dynamics CRM 2015.
D. System Center 2012 can be used to back up the databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015 while users are connected
to the organization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains multiple organizations.
You need to limit the number of systems jobs that can be queued for a single organization.
What should you do?
A. From the web application, modify the system settings.
B. From Deployment Manager, modify the organization settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-CRMAdvancedSettings cmdlet
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Edit-CRMOrganization cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have a network that contains a single IP subnet.
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server cluster that contains two SQL Server servers. You launch the setup program for
Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to configure Dynamics CRM 2015 to use the SQL Server cluster.
What should you enter on the Select SQL Server page? A. The management IP address of the SQL Server cluster
B. The IP address of one of the SQL Server servers
C. The virtual server name of the SQL Server cluster
D. The name of one of the SQL Server servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You plan to install Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to identify which technologies will be installed automatically by the Dynamics CRM 2015 setup program.
Which two technologies should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
B. The Dynamics CRM Email Router
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
D. Microsoft .NET Framework
E. The Web Server (IIS) server role
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers. You need to identify the location of offline
Dynamics CRM data on the client computers.
Which location should you identify?
A. An Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) file
B. A Storage Space in Windows Server
C. A Microsoft SQL Server Express database
D. An Outlook Offline Data (.ost) file
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.

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You need to create custom reports by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension. On which
computer should you install the extensions?
A. Computer1
B. Computer2
C. Computer3
D. Computer4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization named ORG1.
You need to create a disaster recovery plan for the deployment.
Which two databases should you include in the disaster recovery plan? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution?
A. msdb
B. mscem_config
C. master
D. org1_mscrm
E. tempdb
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
You plan to create a new Dynamics CRM 2015 organization by using the New- CRMOrganization Windows PowerShell
cmdlet.
You need to identify the required PowerShell parameters for the new organization.
Which three parameters should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. -SRSUrt
B. -BaseCurrencyCode C. -DisplayName
D. -SQLServerName
E. -BaseLanguageCode
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
You are planning a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that will contain two Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Two hundred users will access the deployment from the internal network. Fifty users will access the deployment from
client sites. All of the users will use
Dynamics CRM client applications.
You need to recommend the minimum number of licenses that must be purchased for the planned deployment.
How many licenses should you recommend?
A. Two server licenses and 250 client access licenses (CALs)
B. One server license and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
C. Two server licenses and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
D. Two server licenses, 200 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
E. Two server licenses, 250 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015.
You plan to use smart matching and tracking tokens.
What information in email messages do tracking tokens rely on to identify items that should be tracked?
A. An alphanumeric string generated at the end of the subject line
B. An alphanumeric string generated at the beginning of the subject line
C. The email address of the sender and the recipient
D. A token that contains an alphanumeric string that is located in the email header
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
You deploy Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to identify the maximum number of addresses that can be synchronized from a Microsoft Outlook contact to a
contact record in Dynamics CRM. How many should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
You need to identify which type of file is used to store the definition for Dynamics CRM reports. Which file type should
you identify?
A. RDL
B. VSPX
C. SQL
D. RDLX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You need to configure email synchronization for a Dynamics CRM 2015 user. Which record should you modify?
A. Contact
B. User
C. Account
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You plan to install a Dynamics CRM 2015 Back End Server.
You need to identify which three server roles are installed on a Back End Server.
Which three roles should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Asynchronous Processing Service
B. Discovery Web Service
C. Organization Web Service
D. Email Integration Service E. Sandbox Processing Service
F. Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer
Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 1
The terms “bitmap,” “b-tree,” and “hash” refer to which type of database structure?
A. View
B. Function
C. Index
D. Stored procedure
E. Trigger
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a table that contains the following data.

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This process is referred to as:
A. defragmentation
B. normalization
C. fragmentation
D. denormalization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a table that contains the following data.

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Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?
A. foreiqn
B. primary
C. local
D. superkey
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement creates a composite key?

passitdump 98-364 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the
3:00 P.M. backup to your database. What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the data in a table?
A. ALLOW SELECT
B. LET READ
C. PERMIT READ
D. GRANT SELECT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to enable a new employee to authenticate to your database.
Which command should you use?
A. ALLOW USER
B. CREATE USER
C. ADD USER
D. INSERT USER
E. ALTER USER
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?
A. ORDER BY
B. DISTINCT
C. GROUP BY
D. UNIQUE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to store product quantities, and you want to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. INTEGER
B. DOUBLE
C. COUNT
D. FLOAT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement will result in the creation of an index?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road
(RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL,
Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data:

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You execute the following statement:
INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234, 36)
What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. VARCHAR (3, 30)
B. CHAR (3, 30)
C. VARCHAR (30)
D. CHAR (30)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
One reason to create a stored procedure is to:A. Improve performance.
B. Minimize storage space.
C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.
D. Give the user control of the query logic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table that are in the Furniture category.
You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.
After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:
A. Empty
B. Deleted
C. Unchanged
D. Archived
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:
A. User to a database.
B. Row of data to a table.
C. Table to a database.
D. Column to a table definition.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You have two tables. Each table has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Ports 20 and 21 are the default ports to secure a SQL Server.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. 1433 and 1434
C. 411 and 412
D. 67 and 68
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
You ate creating a database object named Student to store the following data:

passitdump 98-364 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
You develop a database to store data about textbooks. The data must be stored to process at a later time.
Which database object should you use to store the data?
A. View
B. Table
C. Function
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
First normal form requires that a database excludes repeating groups.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.B. Composite keys
C. Duplicate rows
D. Foreign keys
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You have the following SQL query
SELECT * FROM dbo.ProAthlete WHERE Salary > 500000
The query takes too much time to return data.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
Which item should you add to the Salary column?
A. Non-null constraint
B. Default constraint
C. Index
D. Foreign key
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Each correct selection is worth one point.

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QUESTION 27
The following graphic shows the components of a SQL Server application. You access the SQL Server application through Internet Explorer.

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QUESTION 28
The following illustration shows the structure of a clustered index in a single partition:

passitdump 98-364 exam question

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement Each correct selection is worth one point.

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Question No : 1
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a project.
For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table). For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group). What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a project purchase order?
A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group
Answer: C
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 2             MB6-700 exam
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is invoiced.
Which type of project should you use?
A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals
Answer: C

Question No : 3
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?
A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You attach an invoice format to the project contract. Which item is controlled by the invoice format setting?
A. invoice output destination
B. invoice currency
C. invoice summarization
D. invoice orientation
Answer: C

Question No : 5
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to define?
A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet
Answer: D

Question No : 6
Which journalizing option is used only for time tracking?
A. No ledger
B. Profit and loss
C. Never ledger
D. Balance
Answer: A
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 7         MB6-700 exam
You need to set up a pay when paid (PWP) term for a project. Which project type should you choose?
A. time and material
B. internal
C. cost
D. fixed-price
Answer: A

Question No : 8
You need to configure worker validation project assignments to ensure that certain projects are available for a specific worker. On which form should you configure this type of validation?
A. project
B. project contract
C. worker
D. project management and accounting parameters
Answer: C

Question No : 9
Which three items are valid project types? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Investment
B. Profit and loss
C. Time
D. Time and material
E. Quotation
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 10
Which two statements about a header project are true? MB6-700 exam (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Transactions cannot be posted to a header project.
B. A header project is designated by the Project group field.
C. Each level of a project hierarchy can have only one project header.
D. A header project must be created at the top level of a hierarchy.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION 11
You set up project management and accounting. You need to represent the types of costs and revenues
that are defined for all projects in your entire organization.
Which item should you create to organize categories?
A. shared category
B. expense category
C. project category
D. category group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12

You need a quick snapshot view of a project’s progress. Which form should you use?
A. Invoice control
B. Project statements
C. Cash flow
D. Cost control
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which two items are determined by the cost templates for advanced fixed-price projects? (Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the amount of hours that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
B. the amount of expenses that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
C. whether to calculate the degree of completion on the posted amount or quantity
D. the categories included in calculating the degree of completion
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You have several transactions that are not going to be invoiced. You need to ensure that these
transactions are still moved to the profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use?
A. Post costs
B. Hour journal
C. Expense journal
D. Item journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which two statements about project hierarchies are true? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. Only the parent project can be used for invoicing.
B. Subprojects must be configured with the same project type.
C. Subprojects must be configured to represent different project phases.
D. Subprojects can be used to process special accounting requirements.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16

You set up an effective labor rate for a worker. The hourly cost price is 60 USD. 40 hours are available in
the work week calendar. The worker submits only 30 hours for the week.
What is the effective labor rate that is calculated for this worker?
A. (30*40)/60 = 20
B. (30/40)*60 = 45
C. (60*30)/40 = 45
D. (60*40)/30 = 80
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the effective labor rate (ELR) feature is true?
A. Effective labor rate is not enabled by default for all workers and can be enabled for the workers you
select.
B. Effective labor rate is enabled when a cost price amount and calendar are specified for that worker.
C. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and can be disabled for the workers you select.
D. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and cannot be disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which item is used to transfer costs from work in process (WIP) accounts to profit and loss accounts?
A. Post costs form
B. Adjustments form
C. On-account posting
D. Expense journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which statement for both the cost and the time project types is true?
A. Both allow registering hour transactions.
B. Both allow capitalizing on balance sheet accounts.
C. Both allow registering expense transactions.
D. Both allow posting hour transactions on profit and loss accounts.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
You work with a fixed-price project. To which process do the completed contract and completedpercentage assessment principles relate?
A. posting revenue
B. transferring costs from balance sheet to profit and loss accounts
C. posting costs
D. accumulating costs in balance sheet accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
What is the difference between advanced and simple internal projects?
A. Advanced internal projects can track expense transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
B. Advanced internal projects can use work in process (WIP) to post costs; simple internal projects
cannot.
C. Advanced internal projects can track hour transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
D. Advanced internal projects allow on-account posting; simple internal projects do not.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
An internal project that includes work in process (WIP) is completed.
You need to ensure that the costs posted to the balance accounts from hour, expense, and item
transactions are moved back to profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use to move the costs?
A. Ledger updates
B. Ledger posting setup
C. Project groups
D. Post costs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Which activity is enabled by configuring the project sort fields?
A. replacing the cost categories
B. substituting for a subproject
C. analyzing project profitability
D. allocating expenses related to the project
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 24
To which funding type can you apply payment retention?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Organization
D. Customer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which funding source type can appear only once on a project contract?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Customer
D. Organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
You assign resources to a project.
You need to define the scheduling requirements for the project.
Which three actions are scheduling requirements? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Setting up the calendar to use for the workers on the project
B. Specifying the estimated hourly rate for the workers on the project
C. Specifying the type of calendar for the project
D. Setting the start date and end date of the project
E. Specifying the estimated number of worker hours required to complete the project
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Before you can use the resource scheduling feature and assign workers to projects, the
following prerequisites must be met:
* The Project III license code must be enabled.
* Project parameters must be set up to define the minimum thresholds for how closely a worker’s skills and
availability should match the requirements for a project or activity. This ust be done before the worker can
be included in search results.
* (A) A worker must be assigned a calendar so that the worker’s weekly capacity in hours be specified.
To assign a calendar to a worker, use the following procedure.
1. Click Human resources > Common > Workers > Workers.
2. Select a worker, and then, on the Action Pane, in the Maintain group, click Edit.
3. In the Workerform, click the Employment link, and then, in the Calendar field, select a calendar.
* (E) Before scheduling can occur, the scheduling calendar and the total work effort (in hours) for the
project or activity must be specified.* The worker’s education, skills, certifications, project experience, and other attributes must be specified.
Reference: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 resource scheduling for projects, White Paper, Resource
scheduling prerequisites

QUESTION 27
You transfer a project quotation with a work breakdown structure to a new project.
Which three project data sets can be created during the transfer process? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Invoice proposal
B. Project budget
C. Forecast
D. Item requirements
E. Billing rules
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transfer the Confirmed project quotation into an actual project(New or existing) and then run
a wizard to create project WBS, forecasts, project budgets etc. automatically right from the quotation.
Note:
* The work breakdown structure of dynamics AX 2012 is a hierarchical representation of the activities and
child activities in a project and helps the project managers to do the following.
Define the overall work scope of the projects.
Each descending level of the hierarchy represents increasingly detailed information about the project work.
It helps identifying and creating milestones in the project.
It also helps managers to soft/hard commit resources to the activities/tasks.
Project managers can create WBS templates and use them any time they want to plan a new project. They
can also create the WBS directly on a project.

QUESTION 28
You create a project contract.
You need to include indirect costs.
Which billing rule should you select?
A. Progress
B. Unit of delivery
C. Time and material
D. Milestone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 29
You create an internal project.
You need to enable project budgeting for your project.
Which three actions are mandatory to enable budgeting for the project? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Selecting the budget overrun default
B. Setting the budget planning configurationC. Enabling budget tracking
D. Setting the budget control configuration
E. Setting the transaction type
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DE: Budget control can be setup on the transactions that you desire to put in budget controls on. The
Budget control configuration allows you to select through check boxes which transactions types you want
to enable budget control on.

QUESTION 30
Why would you create an estimate?
A. To set a project’s budget
B. To create an hours forecast
C. To define the forecast model
D. To monitor a project’s progress
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-342
Total Questions: 180 Q&As

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Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device

QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account. 70-342 dumps
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.

QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.

QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. 70-342 dumps
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server
Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required)
Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages.
The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.

QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Use the Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet to test the operation of a Mailbox server computer running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service.
Two diagnostic tests are designed to test the operation of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server software (mode 1) and the operation of the whole system that includes the connected telephony components (mode 2).
The Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet can be used to test the operation of a Mailbox server and related connected telephony equipment. When you run this cmdlet and include the UMIPGateway parameter, the Mailbox server tests the full end-toend operation of the Unified Messaging system. This test includes the telephony components connected to the Mailbox server, such as IP gateways, Private Branch eXchanges (PBXs), and cabling. If the UMIPGateway parameter isn’t specified, the Mailbox server tests only the operation of the Unified Messaging components that are installed and configured on the server.
Incorrect:
Not B: Test-CsExUMConnectivity
Verifies that a test user can connect to Exchange Unified Messaging. This cmdlet was introduced in Lync Server 2013.
Not C: Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
Use the Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow cmdlet to test call flow between Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service, Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service, VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servers and Microsoft Lync Server.

QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD

Explanation:
Retention policy tags can be created for these Folders:
* Calendar
This default folder is used to store meetings and appointments.
* Inbox
This default folder is used to store messages delivered to a mailbox.
* Notes
This folder contains notes created by users in Outlook. These notes are also visible in Outlook Web App.
* Tasks
This default folder is used to store tasks.
Etc.
Reference: Retention tags and retention policies

QUESTION 15
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013.
Note:
A hybrid deployment offers organizations the ability to extend the feature-rich experience and administrative control they have with their existing on-premises Microsoft Exchange organization to the cloud. A hybrid deployment provides the seamless look and feel of a single Exchange organization between an on- premises Exchange Server 2013 organization and Exchange Online in Microsoft Office 365. In addition, a hybrid deployment can serve as an intermediate step to moving completely to an Exchange Online organization.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-741
Total Questions: 125 Q&As
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High Quality Microsoft MCSA 70-741 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
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On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user.
Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The domain contains three users named User1, User 2 and User 3.
Server 1 has a share named Share1 that has the following configurations.
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The Share permissions for Share1 are configured as shown in Share1 Exhibit.
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Share1 contains a file named File1.txt. The Advanced Security settings for File1.txt are configured as shown in the File1.txt exhibit.
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Select the appropriate statement from below. Select Yes if the state is true , otherwise no.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 3
You have an internal network that contains multiple subnets.
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains multiple virtual networks.
You need to deploy a hybrid routing solution between the network and the Azure subscription. The solution must ensure that the computers on all of the networks can connect to each other.
You install RAS Gateway and enable BGP routing on the network and in Azure.
Which three actions should you perform next in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The Hyper-V hosts are configured to use NVGRE for network virtualization.
You have six virtual machines that are connected to an external switch. The virtual machines are configured as shown.
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To which virtual machine or virtual machines can VM1 and VM3 connect? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 5
You have a network policy server (NPS) server named NPS1. One network policy is enabled on NPS1. The policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information in the graphic.
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QUESTION 6
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
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You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You deploy a computer named Computer8 to subnet4. Computer8 has an IP address of 192.168.10.230 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240
What is the broadcast address for Subnet4? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 than run Windows Server 2016. 70-741 dumps
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2, Server3, and Server4 have the DHCP Server role installed. IPAM manages Server2, Server3, and Server4.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
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Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 8
You are deploying Direct Access to a server named DA1. DA1 will be located behind a firewall and will have a single network adapter. The intermediary network will be IPv4.
You need to configure the firewall to support DirectAccess.
Which firewall rules should you create for each type of traffic. To answer, drag the appropriate ports and protocols to the correct traffic types.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed. The advanced DNS properties for Server1 are shown in the Advanced DNS exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server2 is configured to use Server1 as a DNS server. Server2 has the following IP configuration.
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Select the appropriate selection if statement is “Yes” or No.
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QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1. You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 11
On a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2016, you plan to create two new primary zones named adatum.com and contoso.com. You have the following requirements for the zones:
• Ensure that computers on your network can register records automatically in the adatum.com zone.
• Ensure that records that are stale for two weeks are purged automatically from the contoso.com zone.
What should you configure for each zone? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
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\\Server1.adatum.com\namespace1 has a folder target named Folder1. A user named User1 has Full Control share and NTFS permissions to Folder1.
Folder1 contains a file named Filel.doc User1 has only Write NTFS permissions to Filel.doc
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
You are configuring internal virtual networks to support multitenancy communication between tenant virtual machine networks and remote sites.
You have a tenant named Tenant1.
You need to enable Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for Tenant1.
Which commands should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adaptors named NK1 and NIC2. Server2 has two virtual switches named vSwitch1 and vSwitch2. N1C1 connects to vSwitch1. NIC2 connects to vSwitch2 Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has two network adapters named vmNIC1 and vmNIC1. VmNIC1 connects to vSwitch1. VmNIC2 connects to vSwitch2.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
What should you run on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
Server1 configured to use a forwarder named server2.contoso.com that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10.
You need to prevent Server1 from using root hints if the forwarder is unavailable.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 16
Server1 provides DNS name resolution to both internal and external clients. Server1 hosts the primary zone for contoso.com.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
* Internal clients must be able to use Server 1 to resolve internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must not be able to use Server1 to resolve Internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must able to use Server1 to resolve names in the contoso.com zone.
Which commands should you run on Server1.? To answer select the appropriate option in answer area.
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QUESTION 17
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machine shown in the following table.
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All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
B. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
C. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
D. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a VPN server. 70-741 dumps
Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from 06:00 to 18:00 everyday of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Server Manager, You modify the Access Policies on Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has three sites located in London, Paris and Berlin.
The London site contains a web server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure Web1 as an HTTP content server for the hosted cache servers located in the Paris and Berlin sites.
Solution: You install the Deployment Server role service, and then you restart the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) deployment that is used to manage all of the DNS servers on your network. IPAM is configured to use Group Policy provisioning.
You discover that a user adds a new mail exchanger (MX) record to one of the DNS zones.
You want to identify which user added the record.
You open Event Catalog on an IPAM server, and you discover that the most recent event occurred yesterday. You need to ensure that the operational events in the event catalog are never older than one hour.
What should you do?
A. From the properties on the DNS zone, modify the refresh interval.
B. From an IPAM_DNS Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Group Policy refresh interval.
C. From Task Scheduler, modify the Microsoft\Windows\IPAM\Audit task.
D. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs the Update-IpamServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Useful Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

Useful latest Microsoft MCSA 70-734 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. New Microsoft MCSA 70-734 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10” is the name of Microsoft MCSA https://www.lead4pass.com/70-734.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Get the best and most updated latest Microsoft MCSA 70-734 dumps pdf training resources free download from lead4pass, pass Microsoft 70-734 exam easily.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Exam Code: 70-734
Total Questions: 46 Q&As

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New Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to change the edition of the image to Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. Thes solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Upgrade Assistant.
B. Perform offline maintenance of the image by using Dism.
C. Run Windows Anytime Upgrade.
D. Deploy the image to a client computer, perform an in-place upgrade, and then capture an image of the computer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Windows 10 on several computers by using images. The computers will contain a Push Button Reset (PBR).
You need to ensure that the computer configuration supports PBR.
Which computer configurations must be available?
A. a recovery image file
B. a DVD drive that contains the installation media
C. a full system backup
D. a recovery partition
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have a technician computer that has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You have a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
You plan to optimize the Windows PE image by removing unnecessary components from the image.
You need to enable profiling for the image.
Which package should you add to the base Windows PE image before you can enable profiling?
A. winpe-wmi.cab
B. winpe-setup.cab
C. winpe-scripting.cab
D. winpe-mdac.cab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a server that has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) has an image group that contains several Windows images.
You need to ensure that the company name and the support phone number of the OEM are configured when the image is deployed to a computer.
Which file should you modify?
A. Unattend.xml
B. Sysprep.inf
C. Startnet.cmd
D. Winpeshi.ini
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have several reference computers. The computers are configured to always start from a local hard disk drive.
70-734 dumps You plan to capture the reference computers.
On each reference computer, you connect a USB flash drive (UFD) that contains an installation of Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the reference computers start automatically by using Windows PE from the UFD.
What should you do?
A. From the System Properties, modify the Startup and Recovery settings.
B. From the System Configuration utility, modify the Boot settings.
C. Run bdcedit.exe and modify the boot configuration data (BCD) store.
D. From the BIOS options, modify the startup order.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You plan to install operating systems on 500 client computers by using the sources files located in a network share.
You need to identify which operating system must be installed on the computer that hosts the share. The solution must ensure that 25 computers can correct concurrently to the share.
Which two possible operating systems achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
B. Windows 10 Pro
C. Windows 7 Ultimate
D. Windows 8 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2012 Standard
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
You work for an OEM system builder.
You deploy Windows to a client computer that has a 64 GB-Solid State Drive (SSD) by using a configuration set from a USB key.
You need to reduce the size of the Windows installation as much as possible.
Which folder should you remove from the installation?
A. %WINDIR%\Branding
B. %WINDIR%\Addins
C. %WINDIR%\Configsetroot
D. %WINDIR%\Panther
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You need to prepare a hard disk for a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (EUFI)-based computer.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)
A. Format the Windows partition by using NTFS.
B. Format the Windows partition by using FAT32.
C. Create an EFI partition.
D. Convert the hard disk to a GPT disk.
E. Mark the system partition as active.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 9
You purchase a System Builder pack for Windows 10 Pro and plan to perform an installation by using a Personal Use License.
What should you do first to receive support for the installation?
A. change the license
B. contact a Microsoft Authorized Distributor
C. contact Microsoft
D. contact the OEM system builder
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) image by using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Set-Edition
B. /Add-Package
C. /Add-Driver
D. /Enable-Feature
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You deploy a Windows image to a reference computer.
You sign in to the reference computer by using the built-in administrator account and you modify the user environment.
You need to deploy the image to several client computers. The image must contain the profile of the built-in administrator account as the default profile.
Which two actions should you perform before you capture the image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run sysprep.exe/generalize /unattend:unattend.xml.
B. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Setup\UserData settings.
C. Run sysprep.exe /generalize /mode:vm.
D. Run sysprep.exe / audit /unattend:unattend.xml.
E. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Shell_setup settings.
F. Run dism.exe /apply-unattend:unattend.xml.
G. Run dism.exe /image.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
You start a client computer by using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE). You load a default version of Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) that was created by using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
You have a file server that contains a shared folder. The folder contains an image of Windows. The folder is shared to the local Users group only.
The computer has a system partition and a Windows partition.
You need to apply a reference installation from a network share.
Which command should you run before applying the image?
A. net.exe
B. mshta.exe
C. drvinst.exe
D. wpeinit.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
While resting the deployment of the Windows PE image, you discover that the Windows PE installation becomes unresponsive. 70-734 dumps You discover that you are exceeding the memory capacity of the RAM disk.
You need to increase the memory capacity of the RAM disk used by the Windows PE image.
You mount the Windows PE image.
Which command should you run next?
A. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /scratchdir:c:c\images\wpe
B. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /set-scratchspace:256
C. dism /online / set-scratchspace:256
D. dism /cleanup-wim
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A technician applies an image of Windows to a client computer.
The technician reports that several errors occurred during the Windows Welcome phase of the setup.
You need to view the errors that occurred during Windows Welcome.
Which file should you view?
A. Setupapi.dev.log
B. Cbs_unattend.log
C. Setupapi.offline.log
D. Setupact.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You have a Windows image named Image1.wim.
You plan to deploy Image1.win to computers that have built-in video cameras. The driver for the cameras in missing from Image1.wim.
You obtain a driver package from the manufacturer of the cameras. You store the driver package and the driver.inf setup information file C:\Driver.
You mount Image1.wim to C:\Mount.
You need to inject the driver into the image.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options to complete the command.
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QUESTION 1
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?  http://www.passitdump.com/070-488.html 070-488 Dumps Exam
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.

070-488

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the Microsoft 070-488 dumps courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 3
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.  070-488 dumps
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a     070-488 dumps
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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QUESTION 1
You need to implement the alert notifications. The solution must meet the technical requirements. A Lync Server administrator enables an account named ADATUM\IMUser for Microsoft 70-981 vce Unified Communications. What should you do next?
A. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install the Lync Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
B. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account Install the Exchange Server Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
C. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account. Install Microsoft Visual C++ 2008 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
D. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install Unified Communications Managed API 3.0 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
Correct Answer: D
70-981
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend which Orchestrator integration packs must be deployed to reduce the amount of development effort required to deploy an instance of VMT1.
Which Orchestrator integration packs should you recommend?
A. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager
B. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Operations Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager
D. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Operations Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to remediate the 70-981 dumps Exchange Server 2010 service failures. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a service request workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
B. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
C. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
D. Create a service request workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution to meet the monitoring requirements for App2.
What should you include in the recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. An aggregate rollup monitor
B. A distributed application
C. A dependency rollup monitor
D. Service monitors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to manage the changes made to the custom rules. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the 70-981 pdf recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Export the Operations Manager operational database.
B. Back up the Operations Manager folder.
C. Back up the Operations Manager data warehouse database.
D. Export the custom management packs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the sales department managers can create instances of App1 in Cloud1.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A subscription in App Controller and a task in Service Manager
B. A dashboard in Operations Manager and a distributed application
C. A task in Operations Manager and a distributed application
D. A service offering in Service Manager and a runbook in Orchestrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You virtualize all of the SharePoint servers and add them to the Corporate private cloud.
You need to prepare the infrastructure for the planned monitoring of the SharePoint servers.
Which two actions should you perform after NWT-SCOM01 is deployed and NWT-VMM01 is upgraded? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Import the System Center Management Pack for SharePoint Server 2013 to NWT-SCOM01.
B. Create a new distributed application on NWT-SCOM01.
C. Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the SharePoint virtual servers.
D. Import the System Center Management Pack for SharePoint Server 2013 to NWT-VMM01.
E. Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the visualization hosts.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution to prepare the 70-981 exam infrastructure for the planned monitoring implementation.
Which three actions should you recommend performing after NWT-SCOM01 is deployed and NWT-VMM01 is upgraded? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On NWT-VMM01, configure integration with Operations Manager.
B. On NWT-SCOM01, import all of the management packs that start with Microsoft.SystemCenter.VirtualMachineManager.Storage.
C. On NWT-VMM01, configure integration with WSUS.
D. On NWT-SCOM01, install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent and the Virtual Machine Manager console.
E. On NWT-VMM01, install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent and the Operations Manager console.
Correct Answer: ABE

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-463 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Question No : 1
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). http://www.passitdump.com/070-463.html Latest Microsoft 070-463 dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try
You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model.
Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically.
You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that 070-463 dumps accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ).
You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time.
What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
070-463
Answer:
070-463
Question No : 3
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package on a computer is failing periodically in production. The package was created less than one year ago and was deployed to the SSIS catalog.
Sometimes the package is started on a SQL Agent schedule; sometimes the package is started manually by an SSIS developer by using the 070-463 pdf Object Explorer in SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to identify the authenticated user responsible for starting the package each time it failed in the past.
Where can you find this information?
A. the SQL Server Log
B. the SSISDB.[catalog].[executions] view
C. the SSISDB.[catalog].[event_messages] view
D. the SQL Agent Job History
E. the SQL Agent Error Log
Answer: B

Question No : 4
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closestmatching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the
reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the 070-463 vce Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B

Question No : 5
You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data.
You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site.
You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed.
What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
Answer: A

Question No : 6
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the 070-463 exam factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB6-704 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Microsoft Dynamics AX is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have helped in driving thousands of companies on the http://www.passitdump.com/mb6-704.html Microsoft MB6-704 dumps exam sure-shot path of success. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts.

QUESTION 1
You need to display data on a new form. What should you do?
A. Add a data source and create a design.
B. Add a data source and set a caption.
C. Add a data source and create a method.
D. Add a form part and set a caption.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A form data source is the database query, table, or view that a form uses to retrieve the data that is displayed by the form. The data source also defines a connection to the Application Object Server (AOS) that the form can use to MB6-704 dumps create, update, or delete database records.
A data design element (controls) displays data on a form.
Incorrect:
Not B: A data source has no caption.
MB6-704
MB6-704
QUESTION 2
You have a table named Vend Table that contains a field named Main Contact Worker. Main Contact Worker is the reference Recid. Many records in the Vend Table table have the same value for Main Contact Worker.
Users frequently search for data in the Vend Table table based on the Main Contact Worker field.
You need to ensure that when the users create queries that include the Main Contact Worker field in the where clause, the query results are returned in the least amount of time possible.
What should you create in Vend Table?
A. A unique index in Main Contact Worker
B. A surrogate key that is used as the primary index
C. A primary index for Main Contact Worker
D. A non-unique index in Main Contact Worker
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For new tables the default is a primary key based on the MB6-704 pdf RecId field. This is represented as the surrogate.

QUESTION 3
You have two tables named Table l and Table2. There is a relationship between the tables.
You need to display data from both tables in a form.
How should you create the data source for the form?
A. Add both tables to a perspective and use the perspective as the data source.
B. Create a new table named Table3 that is related to Table l and Table2. Use Tables as the data source.
C. Add both tables to a map and use the map as the data source.
D. Add both tables to a query and use the query as the data source.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
You can add parent and child data sources to a query.
Add multiple data sources to a query
1. In the Application Object Tree (AOT), click Queries, locate the query you want to add data sources to, and then click the query node. For information about create queries, see Accessing Data.
2. Right-click Data Dictionary, and then click Open New Window.
3. Drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the query node to add a parent data source.
4. Click the parent data source, and then drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the parent data source to add a child data source.
5. Specify how the parent and child data sources are joined by setting the JoinMode property on the child data source
6. Create a relationship between the data sources.

Incorrect: Not C: Maps define X++ elements that wrap table objects at run time. With a map, you associate a map field with a field in one or more tables. This enables you to use the same field name to ac- cess fields with different names in different tables. Map methods enable you to create or modify methods that act on the map fields.

QUESTION 4
You enable a feature for a Dynamics AX instance. What should you use?
A. An extensible data security (XDS) policy
B. A configuration key
C. The Table Permissions Framework (TPF)
D. A security key
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The administrator can enable or disable configuration keys to control the MB6-704 vce features and functional- ity that are available in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Incorrect:
Not A: XDS is a powerful mechanism that allows the ability to express and implement complex data security needs.

QUESTION 5
You need to add a menu item to a list page. To which pane should you add the menu item?
A. Preview
B. Action
C. Filter
D. Fact Box
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
An action pane and action pane strip is a collection of buttons that represent the tasks and opera- tions associated with a Microsoft Dynamics AX form.
The action pane buttons access menu items that are defined in the AOT.
When you add a button to an action pane button group, the application object tree (AOT) enables you to select the following types of buttons:
Command button
Menu item button
Menu button
Button

QUESTION 6
Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A model is a set of elements in a given layer. Each layer consists of one or more models. Each layer contains one system-generated model that is specific to that layer. Every element in a layer belongs to MB6-704 exam only one model. In other words, no element can belong to two models in the same layer, and every element must belong to a model.
Note:
Models were introduced in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 to help partners and customers more easily install and maintain multiple solutions side by side in the same layer.

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