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QUESTION 1
You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to 070-483 ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. ReRegisterForFinalize()
B. SuppressFinalize()
C. Collect()
D. WaitForFullGCApproach()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class.
You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
You are implementing a method named Calculate that 070-483 performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the application assembly.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The 070-483 data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion.
If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation.
You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception.
What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A network architect is planning a complete access layer and core upgrade for customer’s campus LAN. The campus has four large buildings, each requiring between 1000 and 3000 edge ports. Which factor will play a primary role in determining whether the network architect needs to plan a two-tier or three-tier topology for the campus LAN?
A. The number of fiber links between each building and the building where the core switches reside
B. Whether the customer requires a wireless solution
C. The high number of edge ports that the solution requires
D. Whether the customer can afford core switches that support intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
hp0-y50
The exhibit shows a proposed design for a data center network infrastructure. The exhibit shows two racks for simplicity. The data center will actually include more racks.
The customer has these key requirements:
The customer can scale any application and easily install new hardware that supports that application
The network supports vMotion for live migration of virtual machine (VMs)
How should the network architect change the proposed design to meet the customer requirements?
A. Replace the rack servers with blade enclosures
B. Add more links between the servers and the access layer
C. Remove routing from the access layer and extend VLANs to multiple racks
D. Add a distribution layer between the access layer and the core
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A network architect is explaining the differences between deploying two switches in an HP Intelligent Resiliency Framework (IRF) virtual switch and deploying two switches that implement standard Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). Which statement correctly describes an advantage of IRF?
A. IRF failover occurs in 3 to 4 seconds, whereas VRPF failover occurs in 10 or more seconds
B. Unlike VRRP, which requires as least two addresses to be listed. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scopes list a single IP address for the default gateway
C. The IRF virtual switch runs a separate routing in each member, which enhances the redundancy and reliability of the overall solution
D. Multiple IRF members can actively route traffic for the same subnet and use the same IP address and routing control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which data center characteristics should specifically make the architect consider switches that support Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) or Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL)?
A. The customer requires redundancy and resiliency for the two data center routing switches
B. The customer requires high-speed routing between front-end servers and database servers in different subnets
C. The virtualized data center supports several thousand virtual machines (VMs) with a two-tier networking infrastructure topology
D. The data center requires many redundant links and must scale the tens of thousands of virtual (VMs)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer wants a simple solution for deploying virtual services at a branch. Which devices support modules running a VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Select two)
A. HP 2920 Switch SeriesB. HP MSR30 Router Series
C. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
D. HP 7500 Switch Series
E. HP VSR1000 Virtual Services Routers
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-487 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

The existing sources of flight information and the mechanism of exchange are listed below.
Blue Yonder Airlines provides flight information in an XML file.
Consolidated Messenger provides flight information in a Microsoft http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html Access database that is uploaded every 12 hours to the service using SFTP. The company uses port 22 for SFTP.
Margie’s Travel provides and consumes flight information using serialized ADO.NET DataSets. Data is periodically synced between the service and Margie’s Travel.
Trey Research provides data from multiple sources serialized in proprietary binary formats. The data must be read by using .NET assemblies provided by Trey Research. The assemblies use a common set of dependencies. The current version of the Trey Research assemblies is 1.2.0.0. All assemblies provided by Trey Research are 070-487 signed with a key pair contained in a file named Trey.snk, which Trey Research also supplies.
The application specification requires that any third-party assemblies must have strong names.

QUESTION 1
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller that 070-487 returns the total number of seats for each airline.
You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required data.
Which code segment should you use?
A.
070-487
B.
070-487
C.
070-487
D.
070-487
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to 070-487 load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
Which should you use?
A. SQL Server Data Transformation Services (DTS)
B. EntityTransaction and EntityCommand
C. Office Open XML
D. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
What should you use?
A. Office Open XML
B. COM interop
C. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
D. EntityConnection and EntityDataReader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for 070-487 historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use the WasLate property as the row key.
B. Use the Airline property as the row key.
C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key
D. Use the Arrival property as the row key.
E. Use the Airline property as the partition key.
F. Use the Flight property as the row key.
Correct Answer: BF

You are developing a flight information consolidation service. The service retrieves flight information 070-487 from a number of sources and combines them into a single data set. The consolidated flight information is stored in a SQL Server database. Customers can query and retrieve the data by using a REST API provided by the service.

Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html The service also offers access to historical flight information. The historical flight information can be filtered and queried in an ad hoc manner.
The service runs on a Windows Azure Web Role. SSL is not used.

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QUESTION 1
You are implementing a VHT-capable AP. Which one of the following channels is available in the 802.11ac amendment to the 802.11-2012 standard, which was not available in the standard before this amendment?
A. 153
B. 144
C. 161
D. 56
E. 48
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 2
You are selecting antennas for a WLAN operating in the 5 GHz frequency band. What specifications should be evaluated for an antenna before it is implemented in this WLAN system? (Choose 3)
A. 802.11ad compatibility
B. TPC support
C. Impedance in Ohms
D. Elevation Beamwidth
E. Return Loss Rating
F. Operating Frequencies
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
What is the intended use for the CWNA-106 WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A concrete wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the concrete wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location. If an extension cable is added to move the antenna, what are the likely results?A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna’s azimuth beamwidth will decrease.
D. The size of the Fresnel zone will increase.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred. What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 6
What factors are taken into account when calculating the CWNA-106 Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency and distance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which unit of measurement is an absolute unit that is used to quantify power levels on a linear scale?
A. dBm
B. W
C. dB
D. mW
E. VSWR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An 802.11 WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to CWNA-106 a cable with 3 dB of loss. The cable is connected to an antenna with 16 dBi of gain.
What is the EIRP power output?A. 10 mW
B. 25 mW
C. 50 mW
D. 250 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: E

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TB0-123 Dumps Tibco Exam Practice Questions Online Free Download

Hottest And Latest Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

QUESTION NO: 1
For a Java class specified in an XML to Tibco TB0-123 dumps Java Activity, which two characteristics are required? (Choose two.)
Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/TB0-123.html Best Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Guide.
A. It must be serializable.
B. It must implement Runnable Interface.
C. It must have a public default constructor.
D. It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Click on the Exhibit button.
TB0-123
Which activity will this execution transfer to TB0-123 if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?
A. IncomingOrder
B. End
C. RespondNotAvailable
D. CatchInventory
E. CatchAllOthers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which setting should you increase if a process engine runs out of memory during testing?
A. Thread Count
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Limit
D. Maximum Heap Size
E. Activation Limit
F. Flow Limit
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A BusinessWorks process must be deployed that receives input from an EMS topic and publishes data to an EMS queue. The topic and queue names must contain a token used for TB0-123 pdf migrating between testing and production environments. The system administrator must be able to purge the topic and queue from within the TIBCO Administrator. Which two steps should be taken to create a TIBCO Administrator domain that meets these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The EMS server should be added to the domain using the Domain Utility.
B. Topics and queues should be configured as global.
C. Topics and queues should be created as failsafe.
D. A global variable should be used for migrating between environments.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5
You wish to detect changes to a file and start processes when these changes occur. Which ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks activity should you use?
A. File Monitor
B. Read File
C. File Poller
D. List New File
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
When using the Tester, what is the correct way to TB0-123 specify a FlowLimit of 10?
A. addFlowLimit10 to the bwengine.xml file
B. remotely connect the designer to the deployed engine with FlowLimit set to 10
C. click on the Advanced tab of the Tester and enter a value of 10
D. reference a text file with the entry FlowLimit.*=10 from the Advanced tab of the Tester
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
Process A has a Timer. Process B has a JMS Queue Receiver. Process C has a JMS Topic Subscriber. These processes are to be deployed on two machines and configured to operate in fault-tolerant and load-balanced mode. Which two steps should you take to TB0-123 vce achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. bundle the Timer and the JMS Queue Receiver in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
B. bundle the JMS Topic Subscriber and Timer in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
C. put the JMS Queue Receiver in its own EAR and deploy it twice
D. bundle the two JMS-based starters in one EAR file and deploy it twice
E. put the Timer in its own EAR and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
F. put the JMS Topic Subscriber in its own EAR file and deploy it twice
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 8
How can a custom database driver be added to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A. by using the TIBCO Configuration Tool
B. by using traDBConfig
C. by using the TIBCO Administrator GUI
D. by using the Domain Utility CLI
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
You wish to deploy a pair of engines that share states between jobs via Shared Variables. Which statement is true about this configuration?
A. States cannot be shared across engines, only across jobs within one engine.
B. Sharing states is achieved via TCP communication.
C. A database is required.
D. A shared location in the filesystem is sufficient.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which setting is used to specify that TB0-123 exam a process instance loaded into memory must remain there until it completes?
A. Flow Limit
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Count
D. Activation Limit
E. Thread Count
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
Which utility should you use to delete all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?
A. Domain Utility
B. Tester
C. AppManage
D. Migration
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
A process archive with three JMS services and MaxJobs=5 is deployed. All other values are defaults. Each of the three services consists of four activities, one being a very CPU-intensive mapping activity. For performance issues, how many threads are provisioned to execute the mapping activity?
A. 3
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: B

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Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-801
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo
220-801
QUESTION 1
A desktop computer is exhibiting artifacts on the screen after prolonged use. A technician has already updated the video drivers and ran all operating system updates.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this?
A. Defective cabling
B. Outdated system BIOS
C. Incorrect GPU firmware
D. Overheating GPU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to 220-801 pdf be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA
D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A user wants to store a personal video to view at a later time. Which of the following types of media is the LEAST expensive with a maximum capacity of 750MB?
A. USB drive
B. DVD-R
C. Blu-Ray
D. CD-R
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A user is asking for recommendations on 220-801 dumps building a PC that will primarily be used for gaming. Which of the following should the technician recommend? (Select TWO).
A. 7.1 sound card
B. CAD video card
C. Virtualization support
D. Thunderbolt expansion cards
E. RAID controller
F. High-end video card
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the 220-801 power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?A. Low voltage power supply
B. Failing magnetic hard drive
C. Corrupted Solid State Drive
D. Overheated RAM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ann, a business traveler, calls her company’s help desk reporting that she cannot connect to the hotel’s Internet. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step the 220-801 vce help desk technician should advise?
A. Verify WiFi is enabled
B. Check the proxy settings
C. Contact the hotel’s front desk
D. Boot into Safe Mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A computer will not load Windows and displays the 220-801 exam error message “Operating system not found”. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. bootrec
B. diskpart
C. format
D. sfc
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Polycom
Exam Code: 1K0-001
Exam Name: Polycom Certified Videoconferencing Engineer (PCVE)
Version: Demo

1K0-001

QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the 1K0-001 Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to 1K0-001 the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available 1K0-001 using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to 1K0-001 schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the 1K0-001 CMA but when you log in with your administrator account you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your customer has an issue with their Virtualization Manager (DMA) and they contact Polycom Global Services for support, Select the option which best describes 1K0-001 what they will need to supply PGS:
A. System Log Files plus any additional files specifically requested
B. Troubleshooting Utilities plus any additional files specifically requested
C. System Log Files
D. Troubleshooting Utilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ethernet encapsulates data into a:
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment
D. Datagram
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How is Personal Conference Manager initiated when in a call hosted on an RMX?
A. Click on the PCM button
B. Launch it from RMX Manager
C. From your computer
D. Pressing ## on the remote control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Any device which does not have an IP subnet configured in a network site appears where in the 1K0-001 Virtualization Manager (DMA) site topology?
A. Default Site
B. Internet/VPN
C. Nowhere
D. Primary Site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer would like to configure H.323 on their RSS; select the 1K0-001 two options which they can configure:
A. Enable H.323
B. Neighbored gatekeeper
C. Primary gatekeeper
D. Alternate gatekeeper
Correct Answer: CD

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How To Pass Oracle 1z0-067 Dumps Exam Test With Best Study Guide

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-067 dumps
Exam Name: Upgrade Oracle9i/10g/11g OCA OR OCP to Oracle Database 12c OCP
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.
B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.
C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.
D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.
E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.
Correct Answer: CD

1z0-067

QUESTION 2
A complete database backup to 1z0-067 pdf media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 1z0-067 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three 1z0-067 statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a specified point in time.
Examine the 1z0-067 vce steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:
1.Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.
2.Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time specified.
3.Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.
4.Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Examine the command: SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL;
In which two scenarios is this 1z0-067 command required?
A. The current online redo log file is missing.
B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.
C. All the control files are missing.
D. The database backup is older than the control file backup.
E. All the data files are missing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two are prerequisites for 1z0-067 setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 9
The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/oracle/product/12.1.0/db 1.
You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the 1z0-067 exam Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.
NAMETYPEVALUE
audit_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/admin/eml2rep/adump
background_dump_deststring
core_dump_deststring
db_create_file_deststring
db_recovery_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area diagnostic_deststring
What is the location of the ADR base?
A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.
B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/enl2r&p/adump.
C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.
D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.
Examine the 1z0-067 list of possible steps required to perform the task:
1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.
2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.
3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.
4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.
5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.
6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.
7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.
8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses. 9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1
as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8
Correct Answer: C

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DEV-401

QUESTION 1
A standard field can be marked as external id field.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
While adding a contact role to DEV-401 pdf an Account which of these contacts a counter available?
A. Contacts present in the related list of that Account
B. All Contacts from the Contact object.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of these standard fields can be tracked through Field HistoryTracking?
A. Name
B. Owner
C. Created By
D. Last Modified By
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Standard picklist fields can be either controlling fields or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Custom picklist fields can be DEV-401 vce either controlling or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A field marked as ‘Required’ on an object (while creating the field itself on the object by checking the checkbox for `Required Always require a value in this field in order to save a record’) can be overridden to DEV-401 make this field ‘Read-Only’ by checking the `Read-Only’ checkbox on the page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Record types can be used to determine
A. picklist values
B. business processes (using different page layouts)
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of these can edit a record during an approval process?
A. Only Administrator
B. Only Current approver
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Submitters can always recall approval DEV-401 exam requests.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
If the entry criteria for a step in an approval process are not met, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If an approver rejects an approval request, then the final rejection actions are always executed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
New approval steps can be added to DEV-401 an active approval process only if it is deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Records can enter an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria.
B. If ‘All records enter this approval process’ checkbox is checked, then all records of that object which are submitted for approval would enter this approval process.
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Records can enter a step in an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria
B. If ‘All records enter this step’ checkbox is checked, then all records which have entered this approval process, would enter this step of the approval process
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Specifying DEV-401 entry criteria is compulsory for
A. Workflow rule
B. Approval process
C. Both workflow rule and approval process
D. Neither workflow rule nor approval process
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Who should contribute to the development of a project plan?
A. Project manager
B. Entire project team including project manager
C. Senior management
D. Just the planning department
Correct Answer: B Explanation

PMI-001

QUESTION 2
Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit PMI-001 contribution are all part of:
A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project
B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project
C. Quality measurement techniques
D. Distribute Information tools
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of verify scope.

QUESTION 4
All are output of PMI-001 exam verify scope.
A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities : Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships.

QUESTION 5
Constraints do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Impacts of weather

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not true for PMI-001 a Resource Leveling:
A. Project’s Critical path may be altered
B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. None
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
All are true about Resource Levelling. Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop Schedule. Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This technique also examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This technique PMI-001 lets the schedule and cost slip.

QUESTION 7
A Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the PMI-001 vce activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk.

QUESTION 8
Technical associations and consultants of a project are two examples of __________ ?
A. Expensive additions
B. Scope managers
C. Expert judgment
D. External Resources
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Expert judgment is most effective way of dealing with questions concerning choices of projects. Expert Judgment: Expert judgment related to how PMI-001 equivalent projects have managed scope is used in developing the project scope management plan.

QUESTION 9
What is not among the tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation:
Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning. Other options are true.

QUESTION 10
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown PMI-001 structure?
A. Project task
B. Work package
C. sow
D. none
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following documents the characteristics of a product or service that the project was undertaken to build.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Project description PMI-001 dumps documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build.

QUESTION 12
A graphic display of resource usage hours is called a/an_________________.
A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the PMI-001 various team members and or functions.

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