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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature allows an MPLS TE tunnel to be used by an IGP at the headend of the tunnel ?
A. MPLS TE Forwarding Adjacency
B. Generalized MPLS
C. Different Services traffic Engineering
D. MPLS TE link management
E. MPLS TE autoroute announce
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2

The exhibit illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between MPLS VPN inter-AS. The exhibit also
shows ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses. Which command is needed to change the next-hop address when
ASBR2 is not configured?
A. Redistribute command with the BGP routing process
B. Redistribute command with connected
C. Redistribute command with the IGP routing process
D. Redistribute command with static
Correct Answer: B
Figure 11-3 illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between autonomous systems. The only
difference is that ASBR2 is configured with the redistribute connected command, which propagates the host routes to all
PEs. The redistribute connected command is necessary because ASBR2 is not the configured to change the next hop
address.

lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2-1

Figure 11-3 Host Routes Propagated to All PEs Between Two Autonomous Systems
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/4.0/mpls/user/guide/11_isc.html

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and
that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three MPLS Traffic-eng DS-TE models are defined by IETF standard? (Choose three)
A. GRDM
B. MAR
C. MAM
D. RDM
E. G-BAM
F. A-RDM
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Assume two routers on the same subnet, R1 and R2, both configured for HSRP. R1 has a priority of 120. Which of the
following HSRP interface configurations will always result in the R2 becoming the primary? (Choose two.)
A. standby 1 priority 120
B. standby 1 priority 130 preempt
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 priority 120 preempt
E. standby 1 priority 110 preempt
F. standby 1 priority 110
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 7
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which transparent LAN service allows a service provider to offer Layer 2 Ethernet service to connect an enterprise in a
metro region?
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. PPP over MPLS
D. HDLC over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Why is R4 unable to install any ISIS routes in the routing table?
A. ISIS LSP has an authentication issue.
B. No DR has been elected on this segment.
C. The metric style is mismatched.
D. Circuit levels are different.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit, Which OSPFv3 redistribute configuration provides the equivalent results when redistributing from
EIGRP Pv6 onto OSPFv3 as it happens when redistributing from EIGRPv4 to OSPFv2?
A. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 redistribute connected
B. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 connected
C. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 include-connected
D. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which two sets of configuration implements CBTS? (Choose two)
A. Create multiple MPLS TE from the same headend to the same tail-end
B. Assign a policy-map defining a CBWFQ on an MPLS TE tunnel
C. Create a master tunnel to which other tunnels can be members
D. Create two bandwidth pools a global pool and a pool
E. Create a PBR to use multiple MPLS TE tunnels according to the EXP value
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid
misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following IOS commands can detect whether the SQL slammer virus propagates in your networks?
A. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69 log
B. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434 log
C. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69
D. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UCS Manager account is the default user account, which cannot be deleted or modified?
A. admin
B. superuser
C. super user
D. root
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on the Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 8
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are
connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 10
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG

 

QUESTION 11
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of traffic is handled by the data plane?
A. packets destined for the device
B. control packets
C. transit packets
D. packets indirectly destined for the device
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC

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