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QUESTION 1
What are the three components that are used to construct a failure hierarchy within a failure class?
A. Fixes
B. Causes
C. Incidents
D. Problems
E. Remedies
F. Corrections
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 2
If a UFO request requires more than one transaction to satisfy the quantity, which cost will be displayed for the work
order record?
A. Lesser
B. Greater
C. Average
D. Standard
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The actual start date on a service request is populated by the system when the record is changed to which status?
A. NEW
B. DRAFT
C. INPROG
D. QUEUED
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which application is used to create KPIs?
A. KPI Editor
B. KPI Viewer C. KPI Manager
D. KPI Administration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What does it mean when a purchase contract has a status of WSTART?
A. The contract has been revised to start.
B. The contract is waiting for approval to start.
C. The start date of this contract is in the future.
D. WSTART is not a valid status for a purchase contract.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What is the default status of a newly created purchase order?
A. PEND
B. INPRG
C. DRAFT
D. WAPPR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
A meter has been defined to observe the oil color on an asset to monitor its condition.
Which meter type was used to accomplish this?
A. Group meter
B. Gauge meter
C. Continuous meter
D. Characteristic meter
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A company has five sites within one organization in their system. They want to activate automatic generation of work
orders for three of their sites.
Which option can help to achieve this? A. Work Orders are automatically generated for each active site.
B. From the Preventive Maintenance application select Generate Work Orders for all Sites.
C. Preventive maintenance options must be set up to auto-generate work orders at the site level.
D. Preventive maintenance options must be set up to auto-generate work orders at the organization level.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
An inventory manager wants to track the cost of items in a storeroom and wants to use the cost for the most recently
purchased items when issued. Which costing method represents this requirement?
A. LIFO
B. FIFO
C. Average
D. Standard
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In which two scenarios can an inventory usage record be changed to STAGED status?
A. If the current status of the inventory usage record is SHIPPED.
B. If the current status of the inventory usage record is ENTERED.
C. If the inventory usage record contains one or more lines of type RETURN.
D. If the inventory usage record contains one or more lines of type TRANSFER.
E. If the current status of the inventory usage record is COMPLETE or CANCELED.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
How is the description field updated on a work order when a route is applied?
A. If the route stop has no description, the first job plan task becomes the description.
B. If the route stop has a description, the route description becomes the work order description.
C. If the route stop has a description and refers to an asset, the route description becomes the asset description.
D. If the route stop has no description and refers to an asset, the route description becomes the route stop description.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about flow control?
A. A flow action can be executed from an escalation point.
B. A flow action cannot be selected unless the work order is under flow control.
C. A task cannot be under flow control unless the work order is under flow control.
D. A flow action cannot be selected for a task unless the work order is under flow control.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which two tasks can the Preventive Maintenance (PM) application be used to accomplish?
A. Auto-generate work orders per classification.
B. Auto-generate work orders at the organization level.
C. Select specific days, months, or seasons to generate work orders from a PM.
D. Create a PM hierarchy to schedule a group of work orders for an asset or location hierarchy.
E. Assign nested job plans to a master PM so that different levels of maintenance work can be scheduled at specified
intervals.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
How are items deleted from an active job plan?
A. Delete the item and then save the record
B. Make a job plan revision and then delete the item
C. Change the job plan to WAPPR and then delete the item
D. Change the job plan to PENDING and then delete the item
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
When adding a new attribute to a classification, which data type option is invalid?
A. ALN
B. YORN
C. TABLE
D. NUMERIC
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What action is required prior to approving a new purchase contract?
A. Revise the contract.
B. Change the line status.
C. Authorize at least one site.
D. No further action is required to approve the contract.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is the term assigned for each step in a work plan?
A. Task
B. Child
C. Relationship
D. Work Order
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A maintenance planner wants to manually generate a preventive maintenance (PM) work order within 60 days of its due
date to ensure tools and materials can be gathered on time.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Enter the value within the Generate Work Orders dialog window.
B. This is not possible because PM work orders cannot be generated until they are due.
C. By changing the Frequency Units to days and then setting the frequency to the number of days required.
D. By specifying the tools and materials required it will automatically detect that this PM\’s work order requires early
generation.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
The Item Assembly Structure can be used to create which two types of lists?
A. Items to be added to a kit
B. Spare parts for the given item
C. Manufacturers for the given item
D. Where Used assets for the given item E. Storeroom hierarchies for the given item
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
How can work order priorities be influenced in the Assignment Manager application?
A. modify the assignment status to priority
B. change the work priority and response time
C. use Set Priority Preferences for a specific assignment
D. change the response time relative to the work start date
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
When would a classification be copied in to a follow-up work order from a Service Request (SR)?
A. when the classification has children
B. when the classification has attributes
C. when the inherit hierarchy flag is selected
D. when the classification includes both the work order and SR Use With objects
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What is a valid statement when work order tasks are generated for each route stop?
A. Route stops are sometimes bypassed
B. Work flows cannot control route stops
C. Route stops that become work order tasks will not support job plans
D. Locations of all route stops must be associated with an organization
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
How can a rotating asset be returned to a storeroom?
A. use the Inventory Application
B. use the Storerooms Application
C. use the Inventory Usage Application
D. use the Shipment Receiving Application Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which statement is true regarding ticket templates, job plans, and activities?
A. Only job plans with a status of Active can be applied to ticket templates.
B. Activities specified on a service request using a job plan cannot be deleted.
C. A job plan can be applied by a ticket template or directly to the service request.
D. Activities specified on a job plan are viewable on the Plans tab of the Service Request application.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which application is used to create a shipment?
A. Receiving
B. Item Master
C. Inventory Usage
D. Issues and Transfers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which statement is true about rotating items?
A. Rotating items are consumable parts.
B. Rotating items cannot be returned for repair.
C. Rotating items can only be installed at a location.
D. Rotating items can have an inventory value and balance.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
What is the purpose of the Reorder Point when its value is reached?
A. A special order item is reordered.
B. The vendor is contacted for shipment.
C. The inventory item should be reordered.
D. The automatic reorder process is scheduled.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which two fields must be defined when setting up a consignment item?
A. Vendor
B. Finish Date
C. Invoice type
D. Item number
E. Contract Date
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 29
When is a flow control action executed?
A. when a work order is saved through flow control
B. when the work order is started through a workflow
C. when the work order is started through a flow control
D. when the work order is completed through a workflow
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
What must be true of an asset for it to be identified on a service request?
A. The asset must be flagged as public.
B. The asset must have a user or custodian specified.
C. The asset must be either in status OPERATING or NOT READY.
D. The asset must be in the same site as the default insert site of the logged in user.
Correct Answer: C
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Question No : 1
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a project.
For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table). For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group). What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a project purchase order?
A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group
Answer: C
Question No : 2 MB6-700 exam
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is invoiced.
Which type of project should you use?
A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals
Answer: C
Question No : 3
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?
A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: D
Question No : 4
You attach an invoice format to the project contract. Which item is controlled by the invoice format setting?
A. invoice output destination
B. invoice currency
C. invoice summarization
D. invoice orientation
Answer: C
Question No : 5
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to define?
A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet
Answer: D
Question No : 6
Which journalizing option is used only for time tracking?
A. No ledger
B. Profit and loss
C. Never ledger
D. Balance
Answer: A
Question No : 7 MB6-700 exam
You need to set up a pay when paid (PWP) term for a project. Which project type should you choose?
A. time and material
B. internal
C. cost
D. fixed-price
Answer: A
Question No : 8
You need to configure worker validation project assignments to ensure that certain projects are available for a specific worker. On which form should you configure this type of validation?
A. project
B. project contract
C. worker
D. project management and accounting parameters
Answer: C
Question No : 9
Which three items are valid project types? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Investment
B. Profit and loss
C. Time
D. Time and material
E. Quotation
Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 10
Which two statements about a header project are true? MB6-700 exam (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Transactions cannot be posted to a header project.
B. A header project is designated by the Project group field.
C. Each level of a project hierarchy can have only one project header.
D. A header project must be created at the top level of a hierarchy.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 11
You set up project management and accounting. You need to represent the types of costs and revenues
that are defined for all projects in your entire organization.
Which item should you create to organize categories?
A. shared category
B. expense category
C. project category
D. category group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You need a quick snapshot view of a project’s progress. Which form should you use?
A. Invoice control
B. Project statements
C. Cash flow
D. Cost control
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which two items are determined by the cost templates for advanced fixed-price projects? (Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the amount of hours that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
B. the amount of expenses that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
C. whether to calculate the degree of completion on the posted amount or quantity
D. the categories included in calculating the degree of completion
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You have several transactions that are not going to be invoiced. You need to ensure that these
transactions are still moved to the profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use?
A. Post costs
B. Hour journal
C. Expense journal
D. Item journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about project hierarchies are true? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. Only the parent project can be used for invoicing.
B. Subprojects must be configured with the same project type.
C. Subprojects must be configured to represent different project phases.
D. Subprojects can be used to process special accounting requirements.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
You set up an effective labor rate for a worker. The hourly cost price is 60 USD. 40 hours are available in
the work week calendar. The worker submits only 30 hours for the week.
What is the effective labor rate that is calculated for this worker?
A. (30*40)/60 = 20
B. (30/40)*60 = 45
C. (60*30)/40 = 45
D. (60*40)/30 = 80
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement about the effective labor rate (ELR) feature is true?
A. Effective labor rate is not enabled by default for all workers and can be enabled for the workers you
select.
B. Effective labor rate is enabled when a cost price amount and calendar are specified for that worker.
C. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and can be disabled for the workers you select.
D. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and cannot be disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which item is used to transfer costs from work in process (WIP) accounts to profit and loss accounts?
A. Post costs form
B. Adjustments form
C. On-account posting
D. Expense journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement for both the cost and the time project types is true?
A. Both allow registering hour transactions.
B. Both allow capitalizing on balance sheet accounts.
C. Both allow registering expense transactions.
D. Both allow posting hour transactions on profit and loss accounts.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 20
You work with a fixed-price project. To which process do the completed contract and completedpercentage assessment principles relate?
A. posting revenue
B. transferring costs from balance sheet to profit and loss accounts
C. posting costs
D. accumulating costs in balance sheet accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What is the difference between advanced and simple internal projects?
A. Advanced internal projects can track expense transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
B. Advanced internal projects can use work in process (WIP) to post costs; simple internal projects
cannot.
C. Advanced internal projects can track hour transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
D. Advanced internal projects allow on-account posting; simple internal projects do not.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
An internal project that includes work in process (WIP) is completed.
You need to ensure that the costs posted to the balance accounts from hour, expense, and item
transactions are moved back to profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use to move the costs?
A. Ledger updates
B. Ledger posting setup
C. Project groups
D. Post costs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which activity is enabled by configuring the project sort fields?
A. replacing the cost categories
B. substituting for a subproject
C. analyzing project profitability
D. allocating expenses related to the project
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 24
To which funding type can you apply payment retention?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Organization
D. Customer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which funding source type can appear only once on a project contract?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Customer
D. Organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 26
You assign resources to a project.
You need to define the scheduling requirements for the project.
Which three actions are scheduling requirements? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Setting up the calendar to use for the workers on the project
B. Specifying the estimated hourly rate for the workers on the project
C. Specifying the type of calendar for the project
D. Setting the start date and end date of the project
E. Specifying the estimated number of worker hours required to complete the project
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Before you can use the resource scheduling feature and assign workers to projects, the
following prerequisites must be met:
* The Project III license code must be enabled.
* Project parameters must be set up to define the minimum thresholds for how closely a worker’s skills and
availability should match the requirements for a project or activity. This ust be done before the worker can
be included in search results.
* (A) A worker must be assigned a calendar so that the worker’s weekly capacity in hours be specified.
To assign a calendar to a worker, use the following procedure.
1. Click Human resources > Common > Workers > Workers.
2. Select a worker, and then, on the Action Pane, in the Maintain group, click Edit.
3. In the Workerform, click the Employment link, and then, in the Calendar field, select a calendar.
* (E) Before scheduling can occur, the scheduling calendar and the total work effort (in hours) for the
project or activity must be specified.* The worker’s education, skills, certifications, project experience, and other attributes must be specified.
Reference: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 resource scheduling for projects, White Paper, Resource
scheduling prerequisites
QUESTION 27
You transfer a project quotation with a work breakdown structure to a new project.
Which three project data sets can be created during the transfer process? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Invoice proposal
B. Project budget
C. Forecast
D. Item requirements
E. Billing rules
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transfer the Confirmed project quotation into an actual project(New or existing) and then run
a wizard to create project WBS, forecasts, project budgets etc. automatically right from the quotation.
Note:
* The work breakdown structure of dynamics AX 2012 is a hierarchical representation of the activities and
child activities in a project and helps the project managers to do the following.
Define the overall work scope of the projects.
Each descending level of the hierarchy represents increasingly detailed information about the project work.
It helps identifying and creating milestones in the project.
It also helps managers to soft/hard commit resources to the activities/tasks.
Project managers can create WBS templates and use them any time they want to plan a new project. They
can also create the WBS directly on a project.
QUESTION 28
You create a project contract.
You need to include indirect costs.
Which billing rule should you select?
A. Progress
B. Unit of delivery
C. Time and material
D. Milestone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 29
You create an internal project.
You need to enable project budgeting for your project.
Which three actions are mandatory to enable budgeting for the project? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Selecting the budget overrun default
B. Setting the budget planning configurationC. Enabling budget tracking
D. Setting the budget control configuration
E. Setting the transaction type
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DE: Budget control can be setup on the transactions that you desire to put in budget controls on. The
Budget control configuration allows you to select through check boxes which transactions types you want
to enable budget control on.
QUESTION 30
Why would you create an estimate?
A. To set a project’s budget
B. To create an hours forecast
C. To define the forecast model
D. To monitor a project’s progress
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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QUESTION 1
A customer has a Unified VNX field installed in their rack. All documentation materials included in the original shipment
are stored in the rack. Which item from the original package can be used to verify and label cabling prior to an FRU
replacement procedure?
A. The Installation Guide
B. The packing list
C. The Resource CD
D. The unpacking instructions
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
After installing a MCx VNX for a new EMC customer, the system admin asks where the latest VNX documentation can
be found. What is the correct location?
A. support.emc.com
B. powerlink.emc.com
C. supportinfo.emc.com
D. elabadvisor.emc.com
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
In a VNX for File system, what is connected to the Control Station Eth1 port?
A. Secondary Control Station
B. Primary DM MGMT network
C. Secondary DM MGMT network
D. Customer Network for MGMT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Performing an FRU replacement on a Unified VNX requires managing the ConnectHome system. Which user can check
and change configuration settings for ConnectHome using the CLI on a Control Station?
A. root only
B. sysadmin
C. root or nasadmin D. nasadmin only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer\’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
How would you connect to an SP in a degraded state to retrieve SPCollects?
A. RemotelyAnywhere
B. Unisphere
C. HyperTerminal or PuTTY
D. Unisphere Client
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
From where can you download VNX software?
A. EMC Services Partner website
B. EMC FTP site
C. Engineering website
D. Procedure Generator
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the IP address of the indicated network?
A. 128.221.252.0
B. 128.222.1.0
C. 128.221.254.0
D. 127.0.0.0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
While at a customer\’s site, you need access to a VNX Storage Processor on IP address 10.11.12.13. You want to use
RemotelyAnywhere but https://10.11.12.13 does not open the login screen.
Which port needs to be added to the URL?
A. 9519
B. 443
C. 80
D. 119
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which details can be determined when viewing a specific event within the andquot;current alertsandquot; page?
A. The storage system that generated the alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
B. The number of incidents for the type of alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
C. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The domain where the
storage system resides
D. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The severity type
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
During a VNX gateway manual installation you are registering Data Mover initiators on the VNX Block back-end array.
Which 8-byte WWN is the initiator for Data Mover 2 HBA 0?
A. 5006016036A00190
B. 5006016136A00190
C. 5006016836A00190
D. 5006016936A00190
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which system check is performed during the installation of a VNX File Unified system?
A. Cable check
B. SMTP validation
C. Modem test
D. DNS resolution
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In addition to VNX Installation Assistant, what other tools and methods are available for VNX registration?
A. Unisphere, Standalone Registration Wizard
B. VNX Installation Toolkit, Standalone Registration Wizard
C. System Reports Wizard, VNX Installation Toolkit
D. Unisphere, System Reports Wizard Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which software tool is used for initializing, registering, and basic configuration of new VNX for File/Unified platforms?
A. VNX Installation Assistant
B. Unisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Unisphere Service Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
From the highlighted information in the picture, which type of I/O module is represented?
A. 4 port 1G Base T iSCSI
B. 4 port 8G FC
C. 4 port 8Gb copper ethernet
D. 4 port FCoE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your customer contacts you about an illuminated hardware \’fault\’ LED on a VNX LCC component. Using ESRS, you
access the system with Unisphere and determine that the faulted LCC component needs to be replaced.
How would you obtain the LCC part number for ordering a new replacement part?
A. Use the SolVe Desktop tool and view the specific VNX model parts guide.
B. Access the Alerts section in Unisphere and locate the specific alert for the faulted LCC.
C. Launch Unisphere Service Manager and perform a system verification operation.
D. Access the Hardware for File section of Unisphere and locate the faulted LCC.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
You are onsite to replace a faulted Data Mover within a VNX8000 and note the following:
The storage administrators have received alerts that Server_6 has faulted but Server_6 now appears online.
Server_3 is configured as a standby for Server_2
Server_7 is configured as a standby for Server_6
Which slot in the diagram contains the active data mover Server_6?
A. Server_7
B. Server_6
C. Server_2
D. Server_3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
You have completed a VNX Unified installation and are now verifying the configuration. You notice that the
ConnectHome configuration is incorrect. You attempt to correct parameters using the CLI and are denied access. What
could be the problem?
A. Not logged in as the root user
B. Not logged in as the sysadmin
C. Not logged in as nasadmin
D. Not logged in as administrator
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which operations can you perform with VNX Installation Assistant?
A. Create RAID groups, storage groups, and LUNs
B. Configure LUN masking for non-VNX host access
C. Configure SnapSure and replication
D. Configure MirrorView and SnapView
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
When using USM\’s Capture Diagnostic Data feature, where are the files automatically stored upon completion of this
task?
A. They are in the C:\EMC\repository folder located on the system running USM.
B. They are automatically uploaded to EMC support if the system is registered.
C. The user is prompted to either view them or upload them to EMC if ConnectHome is configured.
D. They are automatically stored in the repository located on the VNX vault drives.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
Which connection is indicated by the number 7 in this VNX SPE Management Module?
A. Serial Console B. Serial (unused)
C. Service port
D. Serial Management
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which storage subsystems can be directly connected to a VNX gateway through Fibre Channel?
A. CLARiiON and Symmetrix only
B. CLARiiON and VNX only
C. Symmetrix, CLARiiON, and VNX
D. Symmetrix and VNX only
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
You are an EMC service provider and want to install the ESRS IP client solution. The workstation on which you want to
install this software is on a network with a proxy server. What information must you provide in order to be able to install
the solution?
A. You must provide your proxy server IP address and the array IP address.
B. Service partners are not allowed to install the ESRS IP client at a customer site.
C. You must provide your Powerlink SecurID credentials and the proxy configuration.
D. You must provide the array serial number and the proxy configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
You are upgrading the VNX OE for File to a new version and choose to reboot the Data Movers during the upgrade.
How long will the users lose access to their files?
A. Access is lost for a time estimated by the USM tool.
B. Access is lost for two minutes.
C. Access to the files is never lost.
D. Access is lost for a time estimated by the HealthCheck tool.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
Which letter refers to the SPSs?
A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which condition must be met before starting the Unisphere Storage System Initialization Utility?
A. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the storage system
B. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the VNX internal network
C. Amber lights on the power supplies are blinking at 4 Hz
D. Blue lights on the Storage Processors are blinking at 1 Hz
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
In which folder can the SPcollects be found when accessing a storage processor through Remotely Anywhere?
A. c:\dumps
B. c:\temp
C. c:\EMC
D. c:\NDU
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You are sent to a secure customer site to install a VNX, where the use of cell phones and mobile hot spots is prohibited.
When you arrive you find that your VNX Installation procedure file is corrupted.
Using one of the customer\’s workstations where can a copy of the VNX installation procedure be found?
A. mydocs.emc.com/VNX
B. support.emc.com/VNX
C. emc.com/engineering/VNX
D. powerlink.emc.com/VNX
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
You have just replaced a defective component in a Data Mover. Which command can be run to verify the system returns
no errors?
A. # /nas/bin/nas_checkup
B. # /nas/bin/nas_server -info -all
C. # watch /nasmcd/getreason
D. # dmesg
Correct Answer: A
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Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)
QUESTION 1
In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.)
A. distribution list
B. application parameter settings script
C. business schedule
D. voice mail operator number
E. calling search space
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true?
A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it.
B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration.
C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster.
D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. SNMP community name
D. configuration template
E. enable remote access
F. persistent settings
G. E164 alias
H. gatekeeper
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unity Express
C. Cisco Unity
D. Cisco Unity Mobile
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? 300-085 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 7
Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)
A. user
B. device
C. dial plan
D. routing rules
E. zone information
F. phone book
G. FindMe
H. gateway
Correct Answer: ABFG
QUESTION 8
Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.)
A. voice-enabled
B. phone keypad
C. forwarded rules
D. direct rules
E. standard hours
F. closed hours
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?
A. TMSXE
B. TMSXN
C. TMSBA
D. TMSPE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications.
D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user.
Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.)
A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length
B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length
C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords
D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length
E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords
F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 12
What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP integration
B. TIMG integration
C. SIP integration
D. PIMG integration
E. H.323 integration
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. Inaccessible
B. Failed
C. Connected
D. Reachable on Public Internet
E. Behind Firewall
F. Online
G. Remote Site
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? 300-085 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN.
B. Listen to the opening greeting.
C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D. Enter user ID and PIN.
E. Log in to remote mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint system upgrades
B. edit call control
C. manage phone books
D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging
E. create voicemail account
F. create new conference
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 17
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)
A. endpoints
B. users
C. Cisco MCUs
D. multiway address
E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
G. video AutoAttendant numbers
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 20
Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. IM and Presence publish trunk
B. route class trunk
C. processing on QSIG trunk
D. fail call over SIP trunk
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? 352-001 dumps single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? 352-001 dumps (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Exam Code: 640-911
Total Questions: 208 Q&As
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Hot Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)
QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”
QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
“Originally, each RIP router transmitted full updates every 30 seconds.”
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? 640-911 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”
QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-342
Total Questions: 180 Q&As
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Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).
QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device
QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account. 70-342 dumps
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.
QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.
QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online
QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.
QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.
QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.
QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. 70-342 dumps
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.
QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server
Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required)
Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration
QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages.
The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.
QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Use the Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet to test the operation of a Mailbox server computer running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service.
Two diagnostic tests are designed to test the operation of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server software (mode 1) and the operation of the whole system that includes the connected telephony components (mode 2).
The Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet can be used to test the operation of a Mailbox server and related connected telephony equipment. When you run this cmdlet and include the UMIPGateway parameter, the Mailbox server tests the full end-toend operation of the Unified Messaging system. This test includes the telephony components connected to the Mailbox server, such as IP gateways, Private Branch eXchanges (PBXs), and cabling. If the UMIPGateway parameter isn’t specified, the Mailbox server tests only the operation of the Unified Messaging components that are installed and configured on the server.
Incorrect:
Not B: Test-CsExUMConnectivity
Verifies that a test user can connect to Exchange Unified Messaging. This cmdlet was introduced in Lync Server 2013.
Not C: Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
Use the Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow cmdlet to test call flow between Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service, Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service, VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servers and Microsoft Lync Server.
QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
Retention policy tags can be created for these Folders:
* Calendar
This default folder is used to store meetings and appointments.
* Inbox
This default folder is used to store messages delivered to a mailbox.
* Notes
This folder contains notes created by users in Outlook. These notes are also visible in Outlook Web App.
* Tasks
This default folder is used to store tasks.
Etc.
Reference: Retention tags and retention policies
QUESTION 15
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013.
Note:
A hybrid deployment offers organizations the ability to extend the feature-rich experience and administrative control they have with their existing on-premises Microsoft Exchange organization to the cloud. A hybrid deployment provides the seamless look and feel of a single Exchange organization between an on- premises Exchange Server 2013 organization and Exchange Online in Microsoft Office 365. In addition, a hybrid deployment can serve as an intermediate step to moving completely to an Exchange Online organization.
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-741
Total Questions: 125 Q&As Download free latest Microsoft 70-741 dumps pdf materials:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReFlheVBuU0JyeWc
High Quality Microsoft MCSA 70-741 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user.
Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The domain contains three users named User1, User 2 and User 3.
Server 1 has a share named Share1 that has the following configurations.
The Share permissions for Share1 are configured as shown in Share1 Exhibit.
Share1 contains a file named File1.txt. The Advanced Security settings for File1.txt are configured as shown in the File1.txt exhibit.
Select the appropriate statement from below. Select Yes if the state is true , otherwise no.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
You have an internal network that contains multiple subnets.
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains multiple virtual networks.
You need to deploy a hybrid routing solution between the network and the Azure subscription. The solution must ensure that the computers on all of the networks can connect to each other.
You install RAS Gateway and enable BGP routing on the network and in Azure.
Which three actions should you perform next in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The Hyper-V hosts are configured to use NVGRE for network virtualization.
You have six virtual machines that are connected to an external switch. The virtual machines are configured as shown.
To which virtual machine or virtual machines can VM1 and VM3 connect? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
You have a network policy server (NPS) server named NPS1. One network policy is enabled on NPS1. The policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information in the graphic.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You deploy a computer named Computer8 to subnet4. Computer8 has an IP address of 192.168.10.230 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240
What is the broadcast address for Subnet4? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 than run Windows Server 2016. 70-741 dumps
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2, Server3, and Server4 have the DHCP Server role installed. IPAM manages Server2, Server3, and Server4.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
You are deploying Direct Access to a server named DA1. DA1 will be located behind a firewall and will have a single network adapter. The intermediary network will be IPv4.
You need to configure the firewall to support DirectAccess.
Which firewall rules should you create for each type of traffic. To answer, drag the appropriate ports and protocols to the correct traffic types.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed. The advanced DNS properties for Server1 are shown in the Advanced DNS exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server2 is configured to use Server1 as a DNS server. Server2 has the following IP configuration.
Select the appropriate selection if statement is “Yes” or No.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1. You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
On a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2016, you plan to create two new primary zones named adatum.com and contoso.com. You have the following requirements for the zones:
• Ensure that computers on your network can register records automatically in the adatum.com zone.
• Ensure that records that are stale for two weeks are purged automatically from the contoso.com zone.
What should you configure for each zone? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
\\Server1.adatum.com\namespace1 has a folder target named Folder1. A user named User1 has Full Control share and NTFS permissions to Folder1.
Folder1 contains a file named Filel.doc User1 has only Write NTFS permissions to Filel.doc
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13
You are configuring internal virtual networks to support multitenancy communication between tenant virtual machine networks and remote sites.
You have a tenant named Tenant1.
You need to enable Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for Tenant1.
Which commands should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adaptors named NK1 and NIC2. Server2 has two virtual switches named vSwitch1 and vSwitch2. N1C1 connects to vSwitch1. NIC2 connects to vSwitch2 Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has two network adapters named vmNIC1 and vmNIC1. VmNIC1 connects to vSwitch1. VmNIC2 connects to vSwitch2.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
What should you run on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
Server1 configured to use a forwarder named server2.contoso.com that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10.
You need to prevent Server1 from using root hints if the forwarder is unavailable.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 16
Server1 provides DNS name resolution to both internal and external clients. Server1 hosts the primary zone for contoso.com.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
* Internal clients must be able to use Server 1 to resolve internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must not be able to use Server1 to resolve Internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must able to use Server1 to resolve names in the contoso.com zone.
Which commands should you run on Server1.? To answer select the appropriate option in answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 17
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machine shown in the following table.
All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
B. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
C. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
D. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a VPN server. 70-741 dumps
Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from 06:00 to 18:00 everyday of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Server Manager, You modify the Access Policies on Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has three sites located in London, Paris and Berlin.
The London site contains a web server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure Web1 as an HTTP content server for the hosted cache servers located in the Paris and Berlin sites.
Solution: You install the Deployment Server role service, and then you restart the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) deployment that is used to manage all of the DNS servers on your network. IPAM is configured to use Group Policy provisioning.
You discover that a user adds a new mail exchanger (MX) record to one of the DNS zones.
You want to identify which user added the record.
You open Event Catalog on an IPAM server, and you discover that the most recent event occurred yesterday. You need to ensure that the operational events in the event catalog are never older than one hour.
What should you do?
A. From the properties on the DNS zone, modify the refresh interval.
B. From an IPAM_DNS Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Group Policy refresh interval.
C. From Task Scheduler, modify the Microsoft\Windows\IPAM\Audit task.
D. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs the Update-IpamServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Exam Code: 70-734
Total Questions: 46 Q&As
New Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to change the edition of the image to Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. Thes solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Upgrade Assistant.
B. Perform offline maintenance of the image by using Dism.
C. Run Windows Anytime Upgrade.
D. Deploy the image to a client computer, perform an in-place upgrade, and then capture an image of the computer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Windows 10 on several computers by using images. The computers will contain a Push Button Reset (PBR).
You need to ensure that the computer configuration supports PBR.
Which computer configurations must be available?
A. a recovery image file
B. a DVD drive that contains the installation media
C. a full system backup
D. a recovery partition
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You have a technician computer that has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You have a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
You plan to optimize the Windows PE image by removing unnecessary components from the image.
You need to enable profiling for the image.
Which package should you add to the base Windows PE image before you can enable profiling?
A. winpe-wmi.cab
B. winpe-setup.cab
C. winpe-scripting.cab
D. winpe-mdac.cab
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You have a server that has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) has an image group that contains several Windows images.
You need to ensure that the company name and the support phone number of the OEM are configured when the image is deployed to a computer.
Which file should you modify?
A. Unattend.xml
B. Sysprep.inf
C. Startnet.cmd
D. Winpeshi.ini
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You have several reference computers. The computers are configured to always start from a local hard disk drive. 70-734 dumps You plan to capture the reference computers.
On each reference computer, you connect a USB flash drive (UFD) that contains an installation of Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the reference computers start automatically by using Windows PE from the UFD.
What should you do?
A. From the System Properties, modify the Startup and Recovery settings.
B. From the System Configuration utility, modify the Boot settings.
C. Run bdcedit.exe and modify the boot configuration data (BCD) store.
D. From the BIOS options, modify the startup order.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You plan to install operating systems on 500 client computers by using the sources files located in a network share.
You need to identify which operating system must be installed on the computer that hosts the share. The solution must ensure that 25 computers can correct concurrently to the share.
Which two possible operating systems achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
B. Windows 10 Pro
C. Windows 7 Ultimate
D. Windows 8 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2012 Standard
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7
You work for an OEM system builder.
You deploy Windows to a client computer that has a 64 GB-Solid State Drive (SSD) by using a configuration set from a USB key.
You need to reduce the size of the Windows installation as much as possible.
Which folder should you remove from the installation?
A. %WINDIR%\Branding
B. %WINDIR%\Addins
C. %WINDIR%\Configsetroot
D. %WINDIR%\Panther
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You need to prepare a hard disk for a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (EUFI)-based computer.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)
A. Format the Windows partition by using NTFS.
B. Format the Windows partition by using FAT32.
C. Create an EFI partition.
D. Convert the hard disk to a GPT disk.
E. Mark the system partition as active.
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
You purchase a System Builder pack for Windows 10 Pro and plan to perform an installation by using a Personal Use License.
What should you do first to receive support for the installation?
A. change the license
B. contact a Microsoft Authorized Distributor
C. contact Microsoft
D. contact the OEM system builder
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) image by using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Set-Edition
B. /Add-Package
C. /Add-Driver
D. /Enable-Feature
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You deploy a Windows image to a reference computer.
You sign in to the reference computer by using the built-in administrator account and you modify the user environment.
You need to deploy the image to several client computers. The image must contain the profile of the built-in administrator account as the default profile.
Which two actions should you perform before you capture the image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run sysprep.exe/generalize /unattend:unattend.xml.
B. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Setup\UserData settings.
C. Run sysprep.exe /generalize /mode:vm.
D. Run sysprep.exe / audit /unattend:unattend.xml.
E. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Shell_setup settings.
F. Run dism.exe /apply-unattend:unattend.xml.
G. Run dism.exe /image.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
You start a client computer by using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE). You load a default version of Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) that was created by using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
You have a file server that contains a shared folder. The folder contains an image of Windows. The folder is shared to the local Users group only.
The computer has a system partition and a Windows partition.
You need to apply a reference installation from a network share.
Which command should you run before applying the image?
A. net.exe
B. mshta.exe
C. drvinst.exe
D. wpeinit.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You have the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
While resting the deployment of the Windows PE image, you discover that the Windows PE installation becomes unresponsive. 70-734 dumps You discover that you are exceeding the memory capacity of the RAM disk.
You need to increase the memory capacity of the RAM disk used by the Windows PE image.
You mount the Windows PE image.
Which command should you run next?
A. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /scratchdir:c:c\images\wpe
B. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /set-scratchspace:256
C. dism /online / set-scratchspace:256
D. dism /cleanup-wim
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A technician applies an image of Windows to a client computer.
The technician reports that several errors occurred during the Windows Welcome phase of the setup.
You need to view the errors that occurred during Windows Welcome.
Which file should you view?
A. Setupapi.dev.log
B. Cbs_unattend.log
C. Setupapi.offline.log
D. Setupact.log
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You have a Windows image named Image1.wim.
You plan to deploy Image1.win to computers that have built-in video cameras. The driver for the cameras in missing from Image1.wim.
You obtain a driver package from the manufacturer of the cameras. You store the driver package and the driver.inf setup information file C:\Driver.
You mount Image1.wim to C:\Mount.
You need to inject the driver into the image.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options to complete the command.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-165
Total Questions: 187 Q&As
Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)
QUESTION 1
Which two issues explain why a packet is not being routed as desired in a policy-based routing configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a higher metric than the default next hop.
B. The route map is not applied to the egress interface.
C. The next hop that is configured in the route map is not in the global routing table.
D. The route map is not applied to the ingress interface.
E. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a lower metric than the default next hop.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When you configure LISP, which two components must be configured at the site edge? (Choose two.)
A. AED
B. ELAN
C. ITR
D. EOBC
E. ETR
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which command should you ran to distribute NTP configuration changes by using Cisco Fabric Services?
A. ntp distribute
B. ntp server 1.2.3.4
C. ntp commit
D. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the datacenter. Which two options you can use to resolve the issue? 300-165 dumps (Choose two)
A. On the OTV VDC, configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevent the virtual FHRP MAC address forwarded on the overlay
B. On the OTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded
C. Configure the same FHRP priority on all the OTV edge devices in both sites
D. Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range
E. On the OTV edge devices, configure an IP ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?
A. router ospf
B. global configuration
C. vPC
D. interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two Nexus family line cards allow the configuration of features regarding LISP, OTV and MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. B1
B. F3
C. F2
D. F1
E. M2
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
B. manually by using global configuration mode
C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch. Port security is configured to use sticky learning. Where are the secured MAC addresses stored?
A. the running configuration
B. the startup configuration
C. NVRAM
D. RAM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Ethernet interface 1/5 on Cisco Nexus 5548 is connected to Cisco UCS C220 rack server. What is the status of Ethernet 1/5 interface for FCoE functionality?
A. Interface reset on Ethernet 1/5 is preventing the FCoE connection from coming up
B. MTU size of 1500 on Ethernet interface 1/5 needs to be changed for FCoE to come UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 needs a layer 3 daughter card for FCoE to come UP on the Ethernet interface 1/5
D. Ethernet interface 1/5 is operational for FCoE and the status is UP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?
A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
What are two prerequisite to running the Smart Call Home feature on a Cisco nexus 6000 series switch? 300-165 dumps (Select two)
A. The switch must have SMTP access to an email server
B. The switch must have public management IP address
C. The switch must have SMTP access to a Cisco.com email server
D. The switch must have an active service contract
E. The switch must be configured to use an email address from the @cisco.com
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Which command sequence correctly enables Adapter FEX on Nexus 5000 Series Switches?
A. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
B. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
C. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
D. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. random-detect
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?
A. server-provided MAC address
B. Fibre Channel name server
C. fabric-provided MAC address
D. FIP proxy
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which four options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Series Switch? 300-165 dumps (Choose four.)
A. line rate
B. managed by a parent switch
C. lossless 10 Gigabit Ethernet
D. lossless 100 Gigabit Ethernet
E. low latency
F. extremely low latency
G. hosts a virtual supervisor module
Correct Answer: ACEG
QUESTION 26
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D
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