Month: March 2017

[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 300-080 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Cisco

The latest Cisco 300-080 dumps practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. Best Cisco 300-080 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. http://www.passitdump.com/300-080.html All the Cisco 300-080 dumps exam questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 300-080 exam test easily at the first time.

QUESTION 1
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco 300-080 dumps Unified Communications Manager. What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-080
All phones are placed in the Internal_Pt partition. The CSS for 300-080 pdf all phones contains the partition Internal_Pt, and Vml.CSS contains the voicemail hunt pilot. When a call is placed from extension 2001 to 2002, which statement is true?
A. Extension 2002 will ring.
B. The call will be blocked.
C. The call will be answered by voicemail.
D. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be blocked.
E. Extension 2002 will ring, and if the call is not answered, the call will match the translation pattern and then be forwarded to voicemail.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco 300-080 vce TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to “Direct.”
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to 300-080 exam check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323 system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco 300-080 Unified Communications Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Correct Answer: AB

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[Latest Questions] Latest Juniper JN0-633 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Juniper

The Juniper  JN0-633 dumps exam practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. http://www.passitdump.com/jn0-633.html We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.
jn0-633
QUESTION 1
You are working as a security administrator and must configure a solution to Juniper JN0-633 dumps protect against distributed botnet attacks on your company’s central SRX cluster.
How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Configure AppTrack to inspect and drop traffic from the malicious hosts.
B. Configure AppQoS to block the malicious hosts.
C. Configure AppDoS to rate limit connections from the malicious hosts.
D. Configure AppID with a custom application to block traffic from the malicious hosts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are asked to change the configuration of your company’s SRX device so that you can block nested traffic from certain Web sites, but the main pages of these Web sites must remain available to JN0-633 pdf users.
Which two methods will accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the HTTP ALG.
B. Implement a firewall filter for Web traffic.
C. Use an IDP policy to inspect the Web traffic.
D. Configure an application firewall rule set.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You are using the AppDoS feature to control against malicious bot client attacks. The bot clients are using file downloads to attack your server farm. You have configured a context value rate of 10,000 hits in 60 seconds. At which threshold will the bot clients no longer be classified as malicious?
A. 5000 hits in 60 seconds
B. 8000 hits in 60 seconds
C. 7500 hits in 60 seconds
D. 9999 hits in 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
jn0-633
QUESTION 4
Your company’s network has seen an increase in Facebook-related traffic. You have been asked to restrict the amount of Facebook-related traffic to less than 100 Mbps regardless of congestion. What are three components used to JN0-633 vce accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. IDP policy
B. application traffic control
C. application firewall
D. security policy
E. application signature
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
You recently implemented application firewall rules on an SRX device to act upon encrypted traffic.
However, the encrypted traffic is not being correctly identified. Which two actions will help the SRX device correctly identify the encrypted traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Enable heuristics to detect the encrypted traffic.
B. Disable the application system cache.
C. Use the junos:UNSPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
D. Use the junos:SPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You have just created a few hundred application firewall rules on an SRX device and applied them to the appropriate firewall polices. However, you are concerned that the JN0-633 exam SRX device might become overwhelmed with the increased processing required to process traffic through the application firewall rules.
Which three actions will help reduce the amount of processing required by the application firewall rules? (Choose three.)
A. Use stateless firewall filtering to block the unwanted traffic.
B. Implement AppQoS to drop the unwanted traffic.
C. Implement screen options to block the unwanted traffic.
D. Implement IPS to drop the unwanted traffic.
E. Use security policies to block the unwanted traffic.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 7
You are asked to apply individual upload and download bandwidth limits to YouTube traffic. Where in the configuration would you create the necessary bandwidth limits?
A. under the [edit security application-firewall] hierarchy
B. under the [edit security policies] hierarchy
C. under the [edit class-of-service] hierarchy
D. under the [edit firewall policer ] hierarchy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You want to verify that all application traffic traversing your SRX device uses standard ports. For example, you need to verify that only DNS traffic runs through port 53, and no other JN0-633 protocols. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an IDP policy to identify the application regardless of the port used.
B. Use a custom ALG to detect the application regardless of the port used.
C. Use AppTrack to detect the application regardless of the port used.
D. Use AppID to detect the application regardless of the port used.
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-039 VCE Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Cisco

Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. Cisco 700-039 vce Additional Online Exams for http://www.passitdump.com/700-039.html Validating Knowledge is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer training materials.

QUESTION 1
Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)
A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-tomarket time for innovative products globally
C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenuestreams through new customers
700-039
QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of 700-039 case studies, whitepapers, demos, and verticaloriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding Cisco 700-039 Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat. How secure is your Collaboration application?
B. I’m concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems’?
D. I’m concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco 700-039 Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
Correct Answer: BCE

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[Latest Questions] Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in CompTIA

CompTIA PK0-003 dump is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality CompTIA http://www.passitdump.com/pk0-003.html training materials. CompTIA PK0-003 dump exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical PathD. PERT chart
Correct Answer: A
PK0-003
QUESTION 2
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the PK0-003 exam MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to PK0-003 vce a full stop due to the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
While performing a scheduled PK0-003 walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy.
Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A project team member has identified a required change to PK0-003 pdf one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they PK0-003 allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. CrashingB. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The project manager is reviewing the Pareto chart to identify if the life cycle of a deliverable is producing software bugs. Which of the following are represented in the chart? (Select TWO).
A. Number of work units affected by the bug
B. Percentage of bug types occurring
C. Software bug counts
D. Root cause of bug occurrence
E. Affect of the bug occurrence
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-883 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Oracle

Oracle Database is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. Oracle Database exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. http://www.passitdump.com/1z0-883.html Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Oracle Oracle Database MySQL 5.6 Database Administrator training materials.

QUESTION 1
Consider the 1Z0-883 dumps query:
Mysql> SET @run = 15;
Mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE run=@run AND objective=’7.1′
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
1Z0-883
The iteminformation table has the following indexes;
Mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM iteminformation:
1Z0-883
This query is run several times in an application with different values in the 1Z0-883 exam WHERE clause in a growing data set.
What is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Consider typical High Availability (HA) solutions that 1Z0-883 do not use shared storage. Which three HA solutions do not use shared storage?
A. Mysql Replication
B. Distributed Replicated Block Device (DRBD) and Mysql
C. Windows Cluster and Mysql
D. Solaris Cluster and Mysql
E. Mysql NDB Cluster
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are characteristic of the MEMORY storage engine?
A. Each table is represented on disk as an.frm file.
B. Each table has a corresponding.MYI and .MYD file.
C. It can support foreign keys.
D. It cannot contain text or BLOB columns.
E. Table contents are not saved if the server is restarted.
F. It can support transactions
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
A Mysql Server has been running an existing application successfully for six months.
The my.cnf is adjusted to 1Z0-883 vce contain the following additional configuration:
[mysqld]
Default-authentication-plugin=sha256_password
The Mysql Server is restarted without error.
What effect will the new configuration have in existing accounts?
A. They will have their passwords updated on start-up to sha256_password format.
B. They will have to change their password the next time they login to the server.
C. They are not affected by this configuration change.
D. They all connect via the secure sha256_password algorithm without any configuration change.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that 1Z0-883 pdf can properly encode your data.
Which three should influence your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS
C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Correct Answer: CDE

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-483 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

Latest and most accurate Microsoft 070-483 dumps exam practice material and real exam questions ans answers http://www.passitdump.com/70-483.html Microsoft Windows Store apps is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Microsoft Microsoft Windows Store apps Programming in C# training materials.

QUESTION 1
You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to 070-483 ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. ReRegisterForFinalize()
B. SuppressFinalize()
C. Collect()
D. WaitForFullGCApproach()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class.
You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
You are implementing a method named Calculate that 070-483 performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the application assembly.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The 070-483 data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion.
If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation.
You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception.
What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
Correct Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest HP HP0-Y50 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in HP

Hottest HP HP0-Y50 pdf exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the HP0-Y50 questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts.  http://www.passitdump.com/hp0-y50.html 100% success and guarantee to pass HP0-Y50 exam easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
A network architect is planning a complete access layer and core upgrade for customer’s campus LAN. The campus has four large buildings, each requiring between 1000 and 3000 edge ports. Which factor will play a primary role in determining whether the network architect needs to plan a two-tier or three-tier topology for the campus LAN?
A. The number of fiber links between each building and the building where the core switches reside
B. Whether the customer requires a wireless solution
C. The high number of edge ports that the solution requires
D. Whether the customer can afford core switches that support intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
hp0-y50
The exhibit shows a proposed design for a data center network infrastructure. The exhibit shows two racks for simplicity. The data center will actually include more racks.
The customer has these key requirements:
The customer can scale any application and easily install new hardware that supports that application
The network supports vMotion for live migration of virtual machine (VMs)
How should the network architect change the proposed design to meet the customer requirements?
A. Replace the rack servers with blade enclosures
B. Add more links between the servers and the access layer
C. Remove routing from the access layer and extend VLANs to multiple racks
D. Add a distribution layer between the access layer and the core
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A network architect is explaining the differences between deploying two switches in an HP Intelligent Resiliency Framework (IRF) virtual switch and deploying two switches that implement standard Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). Which statement correctly describes an advantage of IRF?
A. IRF failover occurs in 3 to 4 seconds, whereas VRPF failover occurs in 10 or more seconds
B. Unlike VRRP, which requires as least two addresses to be listed. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scopes list a single IP address for the default gateway
C. The IRF virtual switch runs a separate routing in each member, which enhances the redundancy and reliability of the overall solution
D. Multiple IRF members can actively route traffic for the same subnet and use the same IP address and routing control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which data center characteristics should specifically make the architect consider switches that support Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) or Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL)?
A. The customer requires redundancy and resiliency for the two data center routing switches
B. The customer requires high-speed routing between front-end servers and database servers in different subnets
C. The virtualized data center supports several thousand virtual machines (VMs) with a two-tier networking infrastructure topology
D. The data center requires many redundant links and must scale the tens of thousands of virtual (VMs)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer wants a simple solution for deploying virtual services at a branch. Which devices support modules running a VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Select two)
A. HP 2920 Switch SeriesB. HP MSR30 Router Series
C. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
D. HP 7500 Switch Series
E. HP VSR1000 Virtual Services Routers
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-487 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

The existing sources of flight information and the mechanism of exchange are listed below.
Blue Yonder Airlines provides flight information in an XML file.
Consolidated Messenger provides flight information in a Microsoft http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html Access database that is uploaded every 12 hours to the service using SFTP. The company uses port 22 for SFTP.
Margie’s Travel provides and consumes flight information using serialized ADO.NET DataSets. Data is periodically synced between the service and Margie’s Travel.
Trey Research provides data from multiple sources serialized in proprietary binary formats. The data must be read by using .NET assemblies provided by Trey Research. The assemblies use a common set of dependencies. The current version of the Trey Research assemblies is 1.2.0.0. All assemblies provided by Trey Research are 070-487 signed with a key pair contained in a file named Trey.snk, which Trey Research also supplies.
The application specification requires that any third-party assemblies must have strong names.

QUESTION 1
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller that 070-487 returns the total number of seats for each airline.
You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required data.
Which code segment should you use?
A.
070-487
B.
070-487
C.
070-487
D.
070-487
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to 070-487 load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
Which should you use?
A. SQL Server Data Transformation Services (DTS)
B. EntityTransaction and EntityCommand
C. Office Open XML
D. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
What should you use?
A. Office Open XML
B. COM interop
C. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
D. EntityConnection and EntityDataReader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for 070-487 historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use the WasLate property as the row key.
B. Use the Airline property as the row key.
C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key
D. Use the Arrival property as the row key.
E. Use the Airline property as the partition key.
F. Use the Flight property as the row key.
Correct Answer: BF

You are developing a flight information consolidation service. The service retrieves flight information 070-487 from a number of sources and combines them into a single data set. The consolidated flight information is stored in a SQL Server database. Customers can query and retrieve the data by using a REST API provided by the service.

Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html The service also offers access to historical flight information. The historical flight information can be filtered and queried in an ad hoc manner.
The service runs on a Windows Azure Web Role. SSL is not used.

[Latest Questions] Latest CWNP CWNA-106 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
You are implementing a VHT-capable AP. Which one of the following channels is available in the 802.11ac amendment to the 802.11-2012 standard, which was not available in the standard before this amendment?
A. 153
B. 144
C. 161
D. 56
E. 48
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 2
You are selecting antennas for a WLAN operating in the 5 GHz frequency band. What specifications should be evaluated for an antenna before it is implemented in this WLAN system? (Choose 3)
A. 802.11ad compatibility
B. TPC support
C. Impedance in Ohms
D. Elevation Beamwidth
E. Return Loss Rating
F. Operating Frequencies
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
What is the intended use for the CWNA-106 WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A concrete wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the concrete wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location. If an extension cable is added to move the antenna, what are the likely results?A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna’s azimuth beamwidth will decrease.
D. The size of the Fresnel zone will increase.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred. What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 6
What factors are taken into account when calculating the CWNA-106 Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency and distance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which unit of measurement is an absolute unit that is used to quantify power levels on a linear scale?
A. dBm
B. W
C. dB
D. mW
E. VSWR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An 802.11 WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to CWNA-106 a cable with 3 dB of loss. The cable is connected to an antenna with 16 dBi of gain.
What is the EIRP power output?A. 10 mW
B. 25 mW
C. 50 mW
D. 250 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: E

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