[Latest Questions] Latest Axis AX0-100 VCE Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it’s very easy to overlook a very important step in the configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ’ s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the AX0-100 vce pictures below?
AX0-100
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following will allow a customer to AX0-100 exam have a PTZ camera automatically change between three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera’s I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following conditions has to be met to use multicast streaming?
A. The network infrastructure has to support multicast
B. The client has to run AXIS Camera Management or AXIS Camera Station
C. The client has to support streaming over RTSP
D. The video device needs to run on firmware version 5.20 or higher
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
With Axis Coverage Shapes, the AX0-100 pdf designer can
A. See the effect of furniture or other objects blocking field of view.
B. View how varying lighting conditions affect the image.
C. Create a 3D view of the scene the camera will capture.
D. Determine at what distance a person can be identified.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In order to comply with SMPTE standards of HDTV, the camera must meet the following:
A. Light sensitivity, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
B. Aspect ratio, resolution, light sensitivity, frame rate
C. Light sensitivity, color fidelity, frame rate, aspect ratio
D. Frame rate, aspect ratio, resolution, color fidelity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which is true about P-iris?
A. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that reduces complexity and cost while maintaining image quality
B. In bright situations. P-iris limits the closing of the iris to avoid blurring caused by diffraction when the iris opening becomes too small
C. The P-iris delivers the optimal depth of field by always using the smallest possible aperture for the available lightning
D. The P-iris makes use of a novel p-shaped blade that allows the iris to react to rapidly changing lighting conditions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Working with a retailer on a site survey, they ask if there’s any way to get more of the AX0-100 dumps aisle and less of the shelves on the short sides in the shot. An AXIS M3204 camera is being used. Which would be the best suggestion to the retailer?
A. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 10 mm
B. Adjusting the varifocal lens from 2.8 mm to 4 mm
C. Using Axis’ Corridor Format
D. Switching the camera to a 16:9 view
Correct Answer: C

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[Latest Questions] Latest Android AND-401 Exam Dumps Study Materials Free Try

Latest and most accurate Android AND-401 exam dumps study material and real exam practice questions and answers. Android AND-401 exam certified Trainer is omnipresent all around the world, http://www.passitdump.com/and-401.html and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. All the Android AND-401 exam dumps questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts.

QUESTION 1
Which file specifies the minimum required Android SDK version your application supports?
A. main.xml
B. R.java
C. strings.xml
D. AndroidManifest.xml
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the parent class of all Activity widgets? Android AND-401 exam dumps practice
A. ViewGroup
B. Layout
C. View
D. Widget
Correct Answer: C
AND-401
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the name of the class used by Intent to AND-401 pdf store additional information?
A. Extra
B. Parcelable
C. Bundle
D. DataStore
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which is not included in the Android application framework?
A. WindowManager
B. NotificationManager
C. DialerManager
D. PackageManager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What Eclipse plugin is required to AND-401 vce develop Android application?
A. J2EE
B. Android Software Development Kit
C. Android Development ToolsD. Web Development Tools
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Can create a custom view by extending class Activity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of these files contains text values that you can use in your application?
A. AndroidManifest.xml
B. res/Text.xml
C. res/layout/Main.xml
D. res/values/strings.xml
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What does the Android AND-401 exam project folder “res/” contain?
A. Java Activity classes
B. Resource files
C. Java source code
D. Libraries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What does this code do?
Intent intent = new Intent();
intent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_VIEW);
intent.setData(android.net.Uri.parse(“http://www.androidatc.com”)); startActivity(intent);
A. Starts a sub-activity
B. Starts a service
C. Sends results to another activity.
D. Starts an activity using an implicit intent.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a Java call-back method invoked when a view is clicked?
A. Detector
B. OnTapListener
C. OnClickDetector
D. OnClickListener
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is a correct statement about an XML layout file?
A. A layout PNG image file
B. A file used to draw the content of an Activity
C. A file that contains all application permission information
D. A file that contains a single activity widget.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What does the src folder AND-401 dumps contain?
A. Image and icon files
B. XML resource files
C. The application manifest file
D. Java source code files
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of these is not defined as a process state?
A. Non-visible
B. Visible
C. Foreground
D. Background
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What Activity method you use to retrieve a reference to an Android view by using the id attribute of a
resource XML?
A. findViewByReference(int id);
B. findViewById(int id)
C. retrieveResourceById(int id)
D. findViewById(String id)
Correct Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 500-007 Exam Study Materials Free Try

Latest and most accurate Cisco 500-007 exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers. Cisco Specialist is the industry leader in information technology, http://www.passitdump.com/500-007.html and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco 500-007 exam Specialist Implementing Cisco TelePresence Video Solution, Part 1 training materials.

QUESTION 1
You have configured your Cisco TelePresence Codec C90 but discover unwanted noise during use. What best practice will help avoid this problem?
A. Connect only one device at a time to an input and avoid daisy-chaining.
B. Recycle the power on your system after adding each additional input.
C. If you are not using an input, turn it off.
D. Daisy-chain additional devices using a serial cable to provide separate power supplies.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Latest Cisco 500-007 exam Questions And Answers
Exhibit:
500-007
Which two letters represent input connections on the Cisco TelePresence Codec C90? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
You want to reconfigure the H.323 and SIP settings using the remote control on the Cisco 500-007 pdf TelePresence Codec C90. Which menu allows you to do this?
A. Audio input levels
B. IP settings
C. Advanced configuration
D. Protocol configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What do you need to do before an endpoint can place or receive H.323 calls using a URI address?
A. Register the endpoint to the SIP server.
B. Register the endpoints to the gatekeeper.
C. Register the endpoint to the gateway.
D. Register the endpoint to the Cisco TelePresence MCU.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
If the user purchases the Cisco TelePresence Touch panel, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both the TRC5 remote control and the Touch panel can be used simultaneously.
B. Either the TRC5 remote control or the Touch panel can be used, but not both simultaneously.
C. The Touch panel should be used to make calls, but the TRC5 remote control should be used to configure the unit.
D. The web interface can be used to configure the unit.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
While on a call, using the remote control, how do you add an additional participant to a call on your MultiSite-enabled endpoint?
A. Press the Home button to return to the menu, and select the Add Participant button.
B. Press and hold the End Call key to bring up the dialing menu.
C. Press and hold the Call key to bring up the dialing menu.
D. Press the Call key, and choose or dial the number of the additional participant.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three are true statements regarding the Cisco 500-007 vce TelePresence endpoint product set? (Choose three.)
A. The MX200 and MX300 are all-inclusive systems and do not require additional AV components.B. The MX200 and MX300 are integrator codec systems and require additional AV components.
C. The EX60 and EX90 are room-based TelePresence systems intended for use in board rooms.
D. The C90 is a high end integrator codec.
E. The EX90 is an integrator codec.
F. The C40 is a basic integrator codec supporting dual monitors.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
What are the two methods for pairing an 8-inch Cisco TelePresence Touch panel to a Codec C90? (Choose two.)
A. Plug the cable that is attached to the Touch panel directly into the back of the Codec C90.
B. Plug the provided Ethernet cable from the Touch panel power supply into the second Ethernet port on the Codec C90.
C. Plug the provided Ethernet cable from the Touch panel power supply into the LAN and pair over the network.
D. Use the built-in wireless on the Touch panel to pair over the network.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true regarding passwords on a Cisco TelePresence MX, EX, C Series, or SX20 device?
A. The device ships from factory with the admin account enabled, with no password.
B. The device ships from factory with the admin account enabled, with a default password of CISCO.
C. The device ships from factory with the admin account enabled, with a default password of TANDBERG.
D. The device ships from factory with the root account enabled, with no password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When configuring a Cisco 500-007 dumps TelePresence EX, MX, or C Series device, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The unit can be completely configured from the web interface.
B. If available, the TRC5 remote control can be used to completely configure the unit.
C. The API must be used in order to configure the unit.
D. The Touch panel can be used to completely configure the unit.
Correct Answer: AB

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[Latest Questions] Latest API API-571 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

Hottest and most accurate API API-571 pdf exam study material are written according to the latest API-571 pdf real IT exams. All the API API-571 pdf exam practice questions and answers are revised by the http://www.passitdump.com/api-571.html skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass API-571 exam test quickly and easily at the first attempt.

Question No : 1
_________ is the main concern during start-up, shutdown and/or hydro testing for equipment/piping operating at elevated temperatures. This event can also occur in an auto refrigeration event in units processing light hydrocarbons.
A. Stress fracture
B. Carburization
C. Spheroidization
D. Brittle fracture
Answer: D

Question No : 2
Fatigue will not occur in carbon steel if stresses are below the: Latest API API-571 pdf exam questions and answers
A. Transition limit.
B. Endurance limit.
C. Hardening limit.
D. Speed limit.
Answer: B
API-571
Question No : 3
________ has been a major problem on coke drum shells.
A. Thermal fatigue
B. Stress cracking
C. Erosion
D. Temper embrittlement
Answer: A

Question No : 4
The “L” grade of stainless steels will sensitize if exposed more than several hours above _______ or long term above _____.
A. 1200º F, 800º F
B. 1000º, 600º F
C. 1000º F, 750º F
D. 1100º F, 800º F
Answer: C

Question No : 5
Once cracking from LME has occurred, grinding out the API-571 vce affected area ______ an acceptable fix.
A. Is
B. Is not
C. Can be
D. Can not be
Answer: B

Question No : 6
Ferritic stainless steels are usually not used in __________ applications.
A. Non-pressure boundary
B. Pressure boundary
C. High temperature
D. Low temperature
Answer: B

Question No : 7
In general, the resistance of carbon steel and other alloys to High temperature corrosion is determined by the ________ content of the material.
A. Molybdenum
B. Chromium
C. Carbon
D. All of the above
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Conditions favoring carburization include a high gas phase carbon activity and _______ oxygen potential.
A. Low
B. High
C. Negative
D. Positive
Answer: A

Question No : 9
It is generally accepted that stresses approaching _________ are required for SCC to occur so that API-571 dumps thermal stress relief is effective in preventing caustic SCC.
A. MAWP
B. Yield
C. Creep range
D. Critical
Answer: B

Question No : 10
Low creep ductility is __________ severe in high tensile strength materials and welds.
A. More
B. Less
C. Usually
D. Not
Answer: A

Question No : 11
Many thermal fatigue cracks are filled with:
A. chlorides.
B. hydroslime.
C. oxides.
D. sulfides.
Answer: C

Question No : 12
Titanium Hydriding damage occurs primarily in sour water strippers and amine units in the overhead condensers, heat exchanger tubes and other titanium equipment operating above _________.
A. 300º F
B. 270º F
C. 210º F
D. 165º F
Answer: D

Question No : 13
Heat treatment can have a significant effect on the toughness and hence fatigue resistance of a metal. In general, ________ grained microstructures tend to perform better than _________ grained.
A. Fine, Course
B. Austenetic, martensitic
C. Course, Fine
D. Martensitic, austenetic
Answer: A

Question No : 14
____________ is a form of environmental cracking that can initiate on the API-571 exam surface of high strength low alloy steels and carbon steels with highly localized zones of high hardness in the weld metal and HAZ as a result of exposure to aqueous HF acid service.
A. Sulfide stress cracking
B. Hydrogen stress cracking
C. Caustic stress cracking
D. Hydrogen induced cracking
Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest VMware 1V0-605 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

Hottest VMware 1V0-605 pdf exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the VMware 1V0-605 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. http://www.passitdump.com/1v0-605.html 100% success and guarantee to pass VMware 1V0-605 exam quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which statement best describes a Software-Defined Enterprise? Latest VMware 1V0-605 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try
A. An architecture framework designed to fully automate all IT services in all data centers removing the need for human interaction.
B. An enterprise response to mainstream disorganization of resources in the data center that delivers on the promise of interconnected infrastructure and software- as a-service.
C. An architecture that uses intelligence automation and common management to provide transparent governance of infrastructure and software-as a-service.
D. An architecture that uses virtualization to replace all physical components in the data center while using localized management and compliance to deliver infrastructure and software-as-a-service.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.
Correct Answer: D
1V0-605
QUESTION 3
Which VMware product will help ensure the 1V0-605 exam most appropriate operating system, amount of storage and number of vCPUs are assigned when creating a vApp according to a given budget?
A. vRealize Orchestrator
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Business
D. vRealize Automation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company has a multi-tier application and needs a deployment solution that will take into account CPU and memory requirements, while ensuring that the security of each workload can be protected using dynamic firewalls.Which two products will meet the company’s needs? (Choose two.)
A. vSphere Replication
B. vRealize Automation
C. vRealize Operations
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible. Which option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An organization is evaluating to 1V0-605 vce a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company has decided to move to a hybrid cloud environment.They are concerned that this may increase management complexity by requiring multiple interfaces.Which product provides a single interface for all virtual machines within a hybrid cloud environment?
A. vCenter Server
B. vFabric Suite
C. vCloud Connector
D. VMware NSX
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A manager wants to 1V0-605 dumps know why traditional usage metering tools are less effective in a private cloud environment thanthey are in physical environments.What statement provides the best response?
A. Traditional monitoring tools won’t work in a cloud environment.
B. Traditional metering tools require agents to be installed, which don’t work in virtual machines.
C. Resource usage is based on the overall demand of all virtual machines instead of per server.
D. This is not true, traditional usage metering tools are still the best choice.
Correct Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB6-704 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
You need to display data on a new form. What should you do?
A. Add a data source and create a design.
B. Add a data source and set a caption.
C. Add a data source and create a method.
D. Add a form part and set a caption.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A form data source is the database query, table, or view that a form uses to retrieve the data that is displayed by the form. The data source also defines a connection to the Application Object Server (AOS) that the form can use to MB6-704 dumps create, update, or delete database records.
A data design element (controls) displays data on a form.
Incorrect:
Not B: A data source has no caption.
MB6-704
MB6-704
QUESTION 2
You have a table named Vend Table that contains a field named Main Contact Worker. Main Contact Worker is the reference Recid. Many records in the Vend Table table have the same value for Main Contact Worker.
Users frequently search for data in the Vend Table table based on the Main Contact Worker field.
You need to ensure that when the users create queries that include the Main Contact Worker field in the where clause, the query results are returned in the least amount of time possible.
What should you create in Vend Table?
A. A unique index in Main Contact Worker
B. A surrogate key that is used as the primary index
C. A primary index for Main Contact Worker
D. A non-unique index in Main Contact Worker
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For new tables the default is a primary key based on the MB6-704 pdf RecId field. This is represented as the surrogate.

QUESTION 3
You have two tables named Table l and Table2. There is a relationship between the tables.
You need to display data from both tables in a form.
How should you create the data source for the form?
A. Add both tables to a perspective and use the perspective as the data source.
B. Create a new table named Table3 that is related to Table l and Table2. Use Tables as the data source.
C. Add both tables to a map and use the map as the data source.
D. Add both tables to a query and use the query as the data source.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
You can add parent and child data sources to a query.
Add multiple data sources to a query
1. In the Application Object Tree (AOT), click Queries, locate the query you want to add data sources to, and then click the query node. For information about create queries, see Accessing Data.
2. Right-click Data Dictionary, and then click Open New Window.
3. Drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the query node to add a parent data source.
4. Click the parent data source, and then drag a table, map, or view from the new window to the Data Sources node below the parent data source to add a child data source.
5. Specify how the parent and child data sources are joined by setting the JoinMode property on the child data source
6. Create a relationship between the data sources.

Incorrect: Not C: Maps define X++ elements that wrap table objects at run time. With a map, you associate a map field with a field in one or more tables. This enables you to use the same field name to ac- cess fields with different names in different tables. Map methods enable you to create or modify methods that act on the map fields.

QUESTION 4
You enable a feature for a Dynamics AX instance. What should you use?
A. An extensible data security (XDS) policy
B. A configuration key
C. The Table Permissions Framework (TPF)
D. A security key
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The administrator can enable or disable configuration keys to control the MB6-704 vce features and functional- ity that are available in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Incorrect:
Not A: XDS is a powerful mechanism that allows the ability to express and implement complex data security needs.

QUESTION 5
You need to add a menu item to a list page. To which pane should you add the menu item?
A. Preview
B. Action
C. Filter
D. Fact Box
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
An action pane and action pane strip is a collection of buttons that represent the tasks and opera- tions associated with a Microsoft Dynamics AX form.
The action pane buttons access menu items that are defined in the AOT.
When you add a button to an action pane button group, the application object tree (AOT) enables you to select the following types of buttons:
Command button
Menu item button
Menu button
Button

QUESTION 6
Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A model is a set of elements in a given layer. Each layer consists of one or more models. Each layer contains one system-generated model that is specific to that layer. Every element in a layer belongs to MB6-704 exam only one model. In other words, no element can belong to two models in the same layer, and every element must belong to a model.
Note:
Models were introduced in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 to help partners and customers more easily install and maintain multiple solutions side by side in the same layer.

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is False? PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER Exam Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers
A Successful project management team should.
A. Have business, user and supplier stakeholder representation
B. Never be reviewed as members should stay with the team for the duration
C. Ensure appropriate governance by defining responsibilities for directing, managing and delivering the project and clearly defining accountability at all levels
D. Have an effective strategy to manage communication flows to and from stakeholders
Answer: B

QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is true of the business interest on the project?
A. Ensures the project provides value for money
B. Ensures the requirements for the project are defined
C. Ensures the products produced meet the desired quality
D. Represents the users of the product
Answer: A
PRINCE2-PRACTITIONER
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following represents the four key characteristics a good Project board should display?
A. Authority, Credibility, Commitment, Availability
B. Authority, Credibility, Delegation, Availability
C. Authority, Availability, Connections, Delegation
D. Authority, Credibility, Connections, Delegation
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
In which Management product would the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER exam Project Board specify where the authority for change requests lies?
A. Risk Management Strategy
B. Quality Management Strategy
C. Communication Strategy
D. Configuration Management Strategy
Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
Who is responsible for ensuring that Communication Management Strategy is appropriate and that planned communication activities actually take place?
A. Project Assurance
B. Project Manager
C. Corporate or Programme Management
D. Project Support
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
A. Ensure project controls are based on project’s scale, complexity, importance, capability and risk
B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project
C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
D. To pick which PRINCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER pdf six areas of the project, Time. Cost and Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit

QUESTION: 8
Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
A. Any of the projects specialist products
B. A result of the change derived from using the project’s products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

QUESTION: 9
When considering the business options in the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER vce business case, which of these is NOT an option?
A. Do nothing
B. Do the maximum
C. Do the minimum
D. Do something
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to expected benefits?
A. They cannot be assigned
B. They don’t need to follow corporate objectives
C. They should be measurable
D. Tolerances cannot be set against expected benefits
Answer: C

QUESTION: 11
Who is responsible for ensuring that the value-for-money solution is constantly reassessed?
A. Business Assurance
B. Senior User
C. Corporate or Programme Management
D. Reject Support
Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
Which of the following activities is the PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER dumps Executive responsible for?
A. Ensure the desired outcome of the project is specified
B. Responsible for the benefits review plan
C. Assess and update the Business Case at the end of each stage
D. Responsible for the Benefits Review Plan post project
Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-465 Exam Study Materials Free Try

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the security requirement.
What should you recommend? http://www.passitdump.com/70-465.html Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-465 Exam Study Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers
A. Revoke user permissions on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate data. Grant the users the EXECUTE permission on the stored procedures.
B. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the tables. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
C. Deny the users SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the tables. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
D. Deny the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate data. Grant the users the EXECUTE permission on the stored
procedures.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Security Requirements
You must provide users with the ability to execute functions within the ERP application, without having direct access to the underlying tables.

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the index fragmentation and index width issue. What should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the data type of the lastModified column to smalldatetime.
B. Remove the lastModified column from the clustered index.
C. Change the data type of the modifiedBy column to tinyint.
D. Change the data type of the id column to bigint.
E. Remove the modifiedBy column from the clustered index.
F. Remove the id column from the clustered index.
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
Scenario: Index Fragmentation Issues
Customers discover that clustered indexes often are fragmented. To resolve this issue, the customers defragment the indexes more frequently.
All of the tables affected by fragmentation have the following columns that are used as the clustered index key:
70-465

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution that reduces the time it takes to import the supplier data.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Enable instant file initialization.
B. Reorganize the indexes.
C. Disable Resource Governor.
D. Enable Auto Update Statistics.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* The ERP application relies on an import process to load supplier data. The import process updates thousands of rows simultaneously, requires exclusive access to the database, and runs daily.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution that meets the data recovery requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A differential backup
B. A transaction log backup
C. Snapshot isolation
D. A database snapshot
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the file storage requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. FileStream
B. FileTable
C. The varbinary data type
D. The image data type
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: File Storage Requirements
The ERP database stores scanned documents that are larger than 2 MB. These files must only be accessed through the ERP application. File access must have the best possible read and write performance.
* FileTables remove a significant barrier to the use of SQL Server for the storage and management of unstructured data that is currently residing as files on file servers. Enterprises can move this data from file servers into FileTables to take advantage of integrated administration and services provided by SQL Server. At the same time, they can maintain Windows application compatibility for their existing Windows applications that see this data as files in the file system.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution that addresses the installation issues.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows logins
B. Server roles
C. Contained users
D. Database roles
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Installation Issues
The current version of the ERP application requires that several SQL Server logins be set up to function correctly. Most customers set up the ERP application in multiple locations and must create logins multiple times.
* Creating contained users enables the user to connect directly to the contained database. This is a very significant feature in high availability and disaster recovery scenarios such as in an AlwaysOn solution. If the users are contained users, in case of failover, people would be able to connect to the secondary without creating logins on the instance hosting the secondary. This provides an immediate benefit.

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-133 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

Latest and most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-133 pdf exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers. Oracle Java and Middleware is omnipresent all around the world, http://www.passitdump.com/1z0-133.html and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies.

QUESTION 1
An administrate in your organization says you do not need to back up the domain files on a machine which only managed servers run.
Select the best explanation for this statement.
A. This Is true because the domain files can be re created with the 1Z0-133 pdf pack and unpack utilities.
B. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is if your security realm uses the embedded ldap system. Which is not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility.
C. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is for applications that are deployed to the managed server. Those files are not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility. If you back those up manually, then pack and unpack can be used.
D. This is not true. You need to back up the domain files on a machine on which only managed servers run by using operating system commands (such as tar or zip).
Correct Answer: B
1Z0-133
QUESTION 2
You decide to use a database to store WebLogic Server transaction logs for a managed server.
Which two steps are required to configure this?
A. Under the managed server’s Services configuration select “JDBC” as the type for the transaction log store.
B. Under the managed server’s Services configuration, select “Disable the Default Store
C. Create a non XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
D. Create an XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about 1Z0-133 exam stopping Node Manager?
A. If you stop Node Manager, the managed servers it started will also stop.
B. You may kill the Node Manager process by using operating system commands.
C. Using the stopNodeManager.sh script so Node Manager stops gradually.
D. Using the administration console, select the appropriate machine and click stop.
E. The administration server goes into ADMIN mode if it can no longer Communicate with Node Manager.
F. The managed servers that Nod Manager started go into ADMIN mode if they can no longer communicate with Node Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
As the technical lead for your project, you have been asked to recommend a new solution to handle frequently increasing loads on your applications. The Weblogic 12.1.2 domain currently runs with two clusters of three servers with request being filtered and passed by a proxy server that users the 1Z0-133 vce round – robin algorithm.
However, the load sometimes exceeds the maximum capacity of all these servers combined but your domain lacks in scalability.
What is the best implementation solution?
A. Add a third cluster and spread existing server instances across the clusters.
B. Modify the proxy server load balancing algorithm to weight based.
C. Configure dynamic clusters and specify the number of server instances you anticipate at needing at peak load.
D. Tune work managers to optimize work.
E. Replace the software load balancer with a hardware load balancer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are using the Configuration Wizard to create a now domain that will consist of a cluster of a of three managed servers along with an instance of WebLogic server acting as HIPT proxy to distribute traffic to the cluster.
Which three steps should you perform with the Configuration Wizard?
A. Create one Cluster.
B. Install Oracle HTTP Server.
C. Create one Coherence server.
D. Create tour managed servers.
E. Assign three servers to a cluster.
F. Specify a proxy port tor the administration server.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
You configure a data source with a non XA driver because your (non-Oracle) database does not provide XA drivers.
The data source will sometimes participate in global transactions with an EJB, so as you configure the 1Z0-133 dumps data source you select “Supports Global Transactions” and One-phase commit.
Why is this configuration wrong?
A. You must choose an XA driver when a data source participates In global transactions.
B. “One’ Phase Commit” always returns “ready” during phase one of the two-phase commit process’ so it is possible you will have heuristic errors in the database.
C. “One-Phase Commit” processes this data source last In the global transactions, if the EJB must go last, you cannot use this configuration.
D. “One-Phase Commit” only allows this data source to participate in global transaction, so you cannot have a global transaction that includes an EJB.
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 74-343 Exam Study Materials Free Try

Latest Microsoft 74-343 exam practice questions and answers. Pass Microsoft 74-343 exam at first try. Download free 74-343 exam test answers online. http://www.passitdump.com/74-343.html Microsoft Project products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. 100% success and guarantee to pass 74-343 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION: 1
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Answer: A
74-343
QUESTION: 2
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the 74-343 pdf senior stakeholder wants you to display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 3
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a construction project that requires propane as a fuel source for your equipment. The foreman requires that you enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. The propane costs $5.00 per gallon, and the tank holds 500 gallons of propane. Each time the tank is refilled, you must pay a fee of $20. You need to enter the propane costs into your project schedule prior to filling the propane tank for the first time. What should you do?
A. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the cost per use and $5.00 in the standard rate.
B. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $25 in the actual cost.
C. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the standard rate and $5.00 in the cost per use.
D. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $2520 in the actual cost.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the 74-343 vce integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the 74-343 dumps same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 6
You are a senior project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013. You are managing a large ERP project with both part-time and full-time resources. The part-time resources have strict contractual limitations regarding working days and hourly availability. You need to make sure the tasks for your part-time resources are only scheduled in the 74-343 calendar during their agreed-upon working days and hours. What should you do?
A. Change the part-time resources’ tasks to manually scheduled to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
B. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the percent of units to the agreed-upon amount in their contract.
C. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the working time for each resource to only include days and hours agreed upon in their contract.
D. Change the part-time resources’ units to the percentage they are available and set task constraints to must finish on to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
Answer: C

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