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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

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A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D



Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A



An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html



What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C



Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D



Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00



An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C



Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C



Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00



lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)


Correct Answer: DE



How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B



Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html



Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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Latest updated CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber ​​Security (CASP+)

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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.

[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers


A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application.
Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

A. Software decompiler
B. Network enumerator
C. Log reduction and analysis tool
D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A


A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:

A. cloning disks.
B. analyzing network-captured packets.
C. recovering lost files.
D. extracting features such as email addresses.

Correct Answer: C


A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?

A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets.
B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources.
C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed.
D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C


A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
B. Implement certificate-based authentication.
C. Verify MD5 hashes.
D. Compress the program with a password.
E. Encrypt with 3DES.
F. Make the DACL read-only.

Correct Answer: AB


A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
B. a zero-day attack.
C. an advanced persistent threat.
D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers

CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test

CAS-004 Q1:

A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:

cas-004 q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?

A. SQL injection
B. XSS scanning
C. Fuzzing
D. Brute forcing

CAS-004 Q2:

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 11:16:22.110343 IP > UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP > UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP > UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP > UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP > UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.

The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.

CAS-004 Q3:

Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:

cas-004 q3

A. Log reduction
B. Network enumerator
C. Fuzzer
D. SCAP scanner

CAS-004 Q4:

An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:

cas-004 q4

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist.
B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS.
C. Wrap the application before deployment.
D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.

CAS-004 Q5:

A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?

A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.

A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.

CAS-004 Q6:

A technician is reviewing the following log:

cas-004 q6

Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?


CAS-004 Q7:

To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions.
Which of the following approaches is described?

A. Blue team
B. Red team
C. Black box
D. White team

CAS-004 Q8:

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

CAS-004 Q9:

During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’.
B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.

Reference: https://docs.rapid7.com/insightvm/elevating-permissions/

CAS-004 Q10:

Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?

A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure.
Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.

CAS-004 Q11:

An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

A. $0
B. $7,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $15,000

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:

CAS-004 Q12:

A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network.
Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?

A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing.
B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media.
C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack.
D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.

Verify the answer:


[Updated 2022.7]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gPzIc5NxyzqTe5jbFzvmofpUGr5d4CUr/

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[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 exam practice questions and success secrets

Is it really hard to pass the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 exam?

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Therefore, I recommend that you use the latest updated Cisco 200-901 Dumps practice questions to help you pass the 200-901 DEVASC certification exam: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html

Cisco 200-901 dumps Exam Questions Develop valid exam questions and answers around the 200-901 DEVASC certification core:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability

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200-901 DEVASC – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/devasc-200-901.html

This exam tests your knowledge of software development and design, including:

  • Understanding and using APIs
  • Cisco platforms and development
  • Application development and security
  • Infrastructure and automation

[Updated 2022] Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command-line driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?





Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B


[Updated 2022] Get Complete Free Cisco 200-901 Exam Questions and Answers

Latest Updates Cisco 200-901 Exam Practice Questions and Answers


Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?
A. processes and tools over teams and interactions
B. detailed documentation over working software
C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements
D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/agile_product_development.pdf


DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

braindump4it 200-901 q2

Drag and drop the variables from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing assignments in the
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it 200-901 q2-2

Reference: https://medium.com/@fotios.floros/linux-backup-script-1722cc9c2bf6 (use tar in order to create your backup


Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/


Drag and drop the Docker file instructions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Not all options are
Select and Place:

braindump4it 200-901 q4


What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving to process closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing


What are the two advantages of version control software? (Choose two.)
A. It supports tracking and comparison of changes in binary format files.
B. It allows new team members to access the current code and history.
C. It supports comparisons between the revisions of source code files.
D. It provides wiki collaboration software for documentation.
E. It allows old versions of packaged applications to be hosted on the Internet.

Correct Answer: AC

Version control is a way to keep a track of the changes in the code so that if something goes wrong, we can make
comparisons in different code versions and revert to any previous version that we want. It is very much required where
multiple developers are continuously working on /changing the source code.


Which description of a default gateway is true?
A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.
B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.
C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.
D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.certificationkits.com/cisco-certification/ccna-articles/cisco-ccna-intro-to-routing-basics/cisco-ccnadefault-gateway-a-default-routes/


Which two items are Cisco DevNet resources? (Choose two.)
A. TAC Support
B. Software Research
C. API Documentation
D. Bitbucket
E. Sandbox

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/


Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Given a username of “devnet” and a password of “cisco123”, applications must create a base64 encoding of the string
____” when sending HTTP requests to an API that uses ___ authentication.
Correct Answer: See below.
Which REST architectural constraint indicates that no client context should be stored on the server between requests?
A. cacheable
B. stateless
C. uniform interface
D. client-server

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/nx-os/#!representational-state-transfer-rest


Fill in the blanks to complete the statement.
Cisco DNA Center provides the capability to send an HTTP ___ request to the API endpoint https://DNAC_API_ADDRESS/api/v1/network-device/and receive the network ___ list in ___ format.
Correct Answer: See below.


Which two encoding formats do YANG interface support? (Choose two.)
E. plain text

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/171/b_171_programmability_cg/model_driven_telemetry.html


Which status code is used by a REST API to indicate that the submitted payload is incorrect?
A. 400
B. 403
C. 405
D. 429

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/application-centric/apic-rest-api-produces-inconsistent-response/tdp/2758230

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