[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Try

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of Cisco 700-038 exam several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Answer: A,C
700-038
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which sequence of Cisco 700-038 dumps steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco 700-038 vce Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Answer: C,D
700-038
QUESTION NO: 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Cisco 700-038 Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Answer: C

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TB0-123 Dumps Tibco Exam Practice Questions Online Free Download

Hottest And Latest Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

QUESTION NO: 1
For a Java class specified in an XML to Tibco TB0-123 dumps Java Activity, which two characteristics are required? (Choose two.)
Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/TB0-123.html Best Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Guide.
A. It must be serializable.
B. It must implement Runnable Interface.
C. It must have a public default constructor.
D. It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Click on the Exhibit button.
TB0-123
Which activity will this execution transfer to TB0-123 if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?
A. IncomingOrder
B. End
C. RespondNotAvailable
D. CatchInventory
E. CatchAllOthers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which setting should you increase if a process engine runs out of memory during testing?
A. Thread Count
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Limit
D. Maximum Heap Size
E. Activation Limit
F. Flow Limit
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A BusinessWorks process must be deployed that receives input from an EMS topic and publishes data to an EMS queue. The topic and queue names must contain a token used for TB0-123 pdf migrating between testing and production environments. The system administrator must be able to purge the topic and queue from within the TIBCO Administrator. Which two steps should be taken to create a TIBCO Administrator domain that meets these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The EMS server should be added to the domain using the Domain Utility.
B. Topics and queues should be configured as global.
C. Topics and queues should be created as failsafe.
D. A global variable should be used for migrating between environments.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5
You wish to detect changes to a file and start processes when these changes occur. Which ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks activity should you use?
A. File Monitor
B. Read File
C. File Poller
D. List New File
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
When using the Tester, what is the correct way to TB0-123 specify a FlowLimit of 10?
A. addFlowLimit10 to the bwengine.xml file
B. remotely connect the designer to the deployed engine with FlowLimit set to 10
C. click on the Advanced tab of the Tester and enter a value of 10
D. reference a text file with the entry FlowLimit.*=10 from the Advanced tab of the Tester
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
Process A has a Timer. Process B has a JMS Queue Receiver. Process C has a JMS Topic Subscriber. These processes are to be deployed on two machines and configured to operate in fault-tolerant and load-balanced mode. Which two steps should you take to TB0-123 vce achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. bundle the Timer and the JMS Queue Receiver in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
B. bundle the JMS Topic Subscriber and Timer in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
C. put the JMS Queue Receiver in its own EAR and deploy it twice
D. bundle the two JMS-based starters in one EAR file and deploy it twice
E. put the Timer in its own EAR and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
F. put the JMS Topic Subscriber in its own EAR file and deploy it twice
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 8
How can a custom database driver be added to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A. by using the TIBCO Configuration Tool
B. by using traDBConfig
C. by using the TIBCO Administrator GUI
D. by using the Domain Utility CLI
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
You wish to deploy a pair of engines that share states between jobs via Shared Variables. Which statement is true about this configuration?
A. States cannot be shared across engines, only across jobs within one engine.
B. Sharing states is achieved via TCP communication.
C. A database is required.
D. A shared location in the filesystem is sufficient.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which setting is used to specify that TB0-123 exam a process instance loaded into memory must remain there until it completes?
A. Flow Limit
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Count
D. Activation Limit
E. Thread Count
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
Which utility should you use to delete all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?
A. Domain Utility
B. Tester
C. AppManage
D. Migration
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
A process archive with three JMS services and MaxJobs=5 is deployed. All other values are defaults. Each of the three services consists of four activities, one being a very CPU-intensive mapping activity. For performance issues, how many threads are provisioned to execute the mapping activity?
A. 3
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: B

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Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-801
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo
220-801
QUESTION 1
A desktop computer is exhibiting artifacts on the screen after prolonged use. A technician has already updated the video drivers and ran all operating system updates.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this?
A. Defective cabling
B. Outdated system BIOS
C. Incorrect GPU firmware
D. Overheating GPU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to 220-801 pdf be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA
D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A user wants to store a personal video to view at a later time. Which of the following types of media is the LEAST expensive with a maximum capacity of 750MB?
A. USB drive
B. DVD-R
C. Blu-Ray
D. CD-R
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A user is asking for recommendations on 220-801 dumps building a PC that will primarily be used for gaming. Which of the following should the technician recommend? (Select TWO).
A. 7.1 sound card
B. CAD video card
C. Virtualization support
D. Thunderbolt expansion cards
E. RAID controller
F. High-end video card
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the 220-801 power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?A. Low voltage power supply
B. Failing magnetic hard drive
C. Corrupted Solid State Drive
D. Overheated RAM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ann, a business traveler, calls her company’s help desk reporting that she cannot connect to the hotel’s Internet. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step the 220-801 vce help desk technician should advise?
A. Verify WiFi is enabled
B. Check the proxy settings
C. Contact the hotel’s front desk
D. Boot into Safe Mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A computer will not load Windows and displays the 220-801 exam error message “Operating system not found”. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. bootrec
B. diskpart
C. format
D. sfc
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Polycom
Exam Code: 1K0-001
Exam Name: Polycom Certified Videoconferencing Engineer (PCVE)
Version: Demo

1K0-001

QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the 1K0-001 Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to 1K0-001 the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available 1K0-001 using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to 1K0-001 schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the 1K0-001 CMA but when you log in with your administrator account you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your customer has an issue with their Virtualization Manager (DMA) and they contact Polycom Global Services for support, Select the option which best describes 1K0-001 what they will need to supply PGS:
A. System Log Files plus any additional files specifically requested
B. Troubleshooting Utilities plus any additional files specifically requested
C. System Log Files
D. Troubleshooting Utilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ethernet encapsulates data into a:
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment
D. Datagram
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How is Personal Conference Manager initiated when in a call hosted on an RMX?
A. Click on the PCM button
B. Launch it from RMX Manager
C. From your computer
D. Pressing ## on the remote control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Any device which does not have an IP subnet configured in a network site appears where in the 1K0-001 Virtualization Manager (DMA) site topology?
A. Default Site
B. Internet/VPN
C. Nowhere
D. Primary Site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer would like to configure H.323 on their RSS; select the 1K0-001 two options which they can configure:
A. Enable H.323
B. Neighbored gatekeeper
C. Primary gatekeeper
D. Alternate gatekeeper
Correct Answer: CD

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How To Pass Oracle 1z0-067 Dumps Exam Test With Best Study Guide

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-067 dumps
Exam Name: Upgrade Oracle9i/10g/11g OCA OR OCP to Oracle Database 12c OCP
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.
B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.
C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.
D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.
E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.
Correct Answer: CD

1z0-067

QUESTION 2
A complete database backup to 1z0-067 pdf media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 1z0-067 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three 1z0-067 statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a specified point in time.
Examine the 1z0-067 vce steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:
1.Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.
2.Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time specified.
3.Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.
4.Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Examine the command: SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL;
In which two scenarios is this 1z0-067 command required?
A. The current online redo log file is missing.
B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.
C. All the control files are missing.
D. The database backup is older than the control file backup.
E. All the data files are missing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two are prerequisites for 1z0-067 setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 9
The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/oracle/product/12.1.0/db 1.
You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the 1z0-067 exam Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.
NAMETYPEVALUE
audit_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/admin/eml2rep/adump
background_dump_deststring
core_dump_deststring
db_create_file_deststring
db_recovery_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area diagnostic_deststring
What is the location of the ADR base?
A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.
B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/enl2r&p/adump.
C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.
D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.
Examine the 1z0-067 list of possible steps required to perform the task:
1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.
2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.
3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.
4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.
5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.
6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.
7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.
8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses. 9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1
as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8
Correct Answer: C

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DEV-401

QUESTION 1
A standard field can be marked as external id field.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
While adding a contact role to DEV-401 pdf an Account which of these contacts a counter available?
A. Contacts present in the related list of that Account
B. All Contacts from the Contact object.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of these standard fields can be tracked through Field HistoryTracking?
A. Name
B. Owner
C. Created By
D. Last Modified By
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Standard picklist fields can be either controlling fields or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Custom picklist fields can be DEV-401 vce either controlling or dependent fields.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A field marked as ‘Required’ on an object (while creating the field itself on the object by checking the checkbox for `Required Always require a value in this field in order to save a record’) can be overridden to DEV-401 make this field ‘Read-Only’ by checking the `Read-Only’ checkbox on the page layout.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Record types can be used to determine
A. picklist values
B. business processes (using different page layouts)
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of these can edit a record during an approval process?
A. Only Administrator
B. Only Current approver
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Submitters can always recall approval DEV-401 exam requests.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
If the entry criteria for a step in an approval process are not met, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If an approver rejects an approval request, then the final rejection actions are always executed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
New approval steps can be added to DEV-401 an active approval process only if it is deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Records can enter an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria.
B. If ‘All records enter this approval process’ checkbox is checked, then all records of that object which are submitted for approval would enter this approval process.
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Records can enter a step in an approval process based on
A. Based on criteria
B. If ‘All records enter this step’ checkbox is checked, then all records which have entered this approval process, would enter this step of the approval process
C. Only A is valid
D. Only B is valid
E. Both A and B are valid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Specifying DEV-401 entry criteria is compulsory for
A. Workflow rule
B. Approval process
C. Both workflow rule and approval process
D. Neither workflow rule nor approval process
Correct Answer: A

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Valid in Belgium, achieved 993 today by using those dumps. Had a new question on multicast similar to the all PIM routers but the answers did contain subnet masks and different answers. Otherwise very good dump with almost 100% correct answers, much better than any other dump. It provided with only the best and most updated PMI Certification PMI-001 pdf training materials.

QUESTION 1
Who should contribute to the development of a project plan?
A. Project manager
B. Entire project team including project manager
C. Senior management
D. Just the planning department
Correct Answer: B Explanation

PMI-001

QUESTION 2
Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit PMI-001 contribution are all part of:
A. Constrained optimization models for selecting a project
B. Benefit measurement models for selecting a project
C. Quality measurement techniques
D. Distribute Information tools
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of verify scope.

QUESTION 4
All are output of PMI-001 exam verify scope.
A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
B. Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
C. Expert judgment
D. Network templates
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Expert judgment is not used in Sequence Activities. Sequence Activities : Identifying and documenting interactivity logical relationships.

QUESTION 5
Constraints do not include:
A. Impacts of weather
B. Organizational structure of the performing organization
C. Collective bargaining
D. Expected staff assignments
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Impacts of weather

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is not true for PMI-001 a Resource Leveling:
A. Project’s Critical path may be altered
B. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. None
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
All are true about Resource Levelling. Resource Levelling is another tool in Develop Schedule. Resource Levelling removes the peaks and valleys of resource allocation. This technique also examines resource over allocation and critical resource allocation. This technique PMI-001 lets the schedule and cost slip.

QUESTION 7
A Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation:
Reserve Analysis ( Contingency ): Project teams may choose to incorporate an additional time frame, called time reserve, contingency or buffer, that can be added to the PMI-001 vce activity duration or elsewhere in the schedule as recognition of schedule risk.

QUESTION 8
Technical associations and consultants of a project are two examples of __________ ?
A. Expensive additions
B. Scope managers
C. Expert judgment
D. External Resources
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation:
C is the correct answer. Expert judgment is most effective way of dealing with questions concerning choices of projects. Expert Judgment: Expert judgment related to how PMI-001 equivalent projects have managed scope is used in developing the project scope management plan.

QUESTION 9
What is not among the tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning?
A. Staffing management plan
B. Templates
C. Human resource practices
D. Organizational theory
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation:
Staffing management plan is not tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning. Other options are true.

QUESTION 10
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown PMI-001 structure?
A. Project task
B. Work package
C. sow
D. none
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.

QUESTION 11
Which of the following documents the characteristics of a product or service that the project was undertaken to build.
A. Resource plan
B. Project charter
C. Project description
D. Scope statement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Project description PMI-001 dumps documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to build.

QUESTION 12
A graphic display of resource usage hours is called a/an_________________.
A. Organizational chart
B. Responsibility matrix
C. WBS
D. Histogram
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
histogram that is useful in determining how much time is expected from the PMI-001 various team members and or functions.

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QUESTION 1
Your project, which uses prototype.js, contains the JavaScript class Photoviewer (see EXAMPLE, below).
Which one of the Magento M70-101 pdf following code samples will create a class called AdvancedPhotoViewer that extends
Photoviewe r?
EXAMPLE:
var PhotoViewer = Class.create();
A. var AdvancedPhotoViewer = new PhotoViewer()
B. AdvancedPhotoViewer.prototype = Object.extend (new PhotoViewer ()
C. var AdvancedPhotoViewer = Class.extend (PhotoViewer)
D. AdvancedPhotoViewer = PhotoViewer.extend ()
Correct Answer: B

M70-101

QUESTION 2
Which element in layout XML specifies a method to be called on a referenced or newly defined block?
A. <action>
B. <call>
C. <change>
D. <method>
E. <update>
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of these code samples will assign a root template to M70-101 a specific page of native Magento?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You want to create a new “screendesign” package based on the “default” package’s “default” theme.
Which ONE of the M70-101 following steps do you have to take?
A. Copy app/design/base to app/design/screendesign
B. Create an empty folder app/design/frontend/screendesign and copy app/design/frontend/default/default into it
C. Create skin/frontend/screendesign, then copy the CSS and images folders and their files from /skin/ frontend/default/default/ to skin/frontend/screendesign/default
D. Inside app/design/frontend and skin/frontend, copy the folder “default” to the folder “custom”; then rename custom/default to custom/screendesign in both places
E. Create app/design/frontend/default/screendesign
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which ONE of the following adds links to the top links navigation?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When a block of type __________ is rendered, all its M70-101 child blocks are rendered automatically, without the need to call the getChildHtml () method.
A. Page/html
B. Core/template
C. Core/text_list
D. Page/html_wrapper
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which is the correct type attribute for a structural block?
A. core/block
B. core/html_wrapper
C. core/text
D. core/text_list
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Within a Magento instance configured to use the M70-101 package name “my_package” and the theme name “my_theme”, which file would override the default catalog search template?
A. app/frontend/base/my_package/my_theme/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml
B. app/design/frontend/base/default/template/customsearch/form.mini.phtml
C. app/design/frontend/my_theme/my_package/template/catalogsearch/custom.form.mini.phtml
D. app/design/frontend/my_package/my_theme/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml
E. app/frontend/default/my_theme/customsearch/form.mini.phtml
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have added some HTML to a custom template located at “template/mytemplates/custom.phtml”. Which code snippet is the correct way to create a block for custom.phtml in the layout XML?
A. <block type=”core/template” name=”custom” template=”mytemplates/custom.phtml”/>
B. <block type=”core/template” name=”custom”template=”template/mytemplates/ custom.phtml”/>
C. <block type=”custom1′ name=”custom”template=”template/mytemplates/ custom.phtml”/>
D. <block type=”custom” name=”custom” template=”mytemplates/custom.phtml”/>
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to add a custom structural block template to M70-101 a block that will render all children automatically. Which three attributes are required in the block’s XML definition? (Choose THREE.)
A. after
B. as
C. before
D. name
E. template
F. type
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
You want to add additional XML (“Additional XML Declaration”) to an existing layout block. Which is the proper tag for adding it?
A. <reference type=”block”>Additional XML Declaration</ reference>
B. <action method= “addNewBlock”><block name>Additional XML Declaration <I block name></ action>
C. <reference name=”block.name”>Additional XML Declaration</reference>
D. <method action= “setBlockContent”><xml>Additional XML Declaration</xml></method>
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is the proper layout update handle for adding a CSS file to the product page?
A. <product>
B. <catalog_product>
C. <catalog_product_view>
D. <default>
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The name of a design package in the M70-101 Design tab of the System->Configuration window in Admin is also used as ________ and ________ . (Choose TWO.)
A. a folder name in app/design/frontend
B. a configuration value taken from index.php
C. a folder name in skin/frontend
D. a setting in the menu System -> Design
E. a folder name in app/design/frontend/base
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
You have a “custom/default” design package. You need to edit this file:
/app/design/frontend/base/defauIt/template/page/html/header.Phtml
Which method is a bad practice because the M70-101 file will be overwritten during Magento upgrades?
A. Edit the “base/default” file directly.
B. Create a new module in “base/default” called “custom” and copy the file there for editing.
C. Create a new package called “custom/custom” and copy the file there for editing.
D. Copy the file to “custom/default” for editing.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following bash option CompTIA LX0-103 pdf will prevent an administrator from overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C

LX0-103

QUESTION 2
All of the following are Mail Transport Agents EXCEPT:
A. exim
B. postfix
C. sendmail
D. qmail
E. mail
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to LX0-103 perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?
A. The process ID of the echo command.
B. The process ID of the current shell.
C. The process ID of the last command executed.
D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will print the LX0-103 exam exit value of the previous command to the screen in bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about crontab are true? (Select TWO).
A. Every user may have their owncrontab.
B. Changing a crontab requires a reload/restart of the cron daemon.
C. The cron daemon reloads crontab files automatically when necessary.
D. hourly is the same as “0 * * * *”.
E. A cron daemon must run for each existing crontab.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands is used to LX0-103 deactivate a network interface?
A. ifdown
B. ipdown
C. net
D. netdown
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following looks like a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomainlocalhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhostlocalhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomainlocalhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following lines would an administrator find in the LX0-103 vce file /etc/resolv.conf?
A. order hosts, bind
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files, dns
D. domain mycompany.com
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following find commands will print out a list of suid root files in /usr?
A. find /usr -uid 0 -perm +4000
B. find -user root +mode +s /usr
C. find -type suid -username root -d /usr
D. find /usr -ls \*s\* -u root
E. find /usr -suid -perm +4000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the LX0-103 following commands will provide locale-specific information about a system and its environment?
A. loconfig
B. getlocale
C. locale
D. tzconfig
E. tzselect
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following should the permission settings be for /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow?
A. /etc/passwD. -rw-r–r– /etc/shadow: -r——–
B. /etc/passwD. -r——– /etc/shadow: -rw-r–r–
C. /etc/passwD. -rw-r–r– /etc/shadow: -rw-r–r–
D. /etc/passwD. -r——– /etc/shadow: -r——–}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to set default shell variables for all users?
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~default/.bash_profile
D. /etc/skel/.bashrc
E. /etc/skel/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Suppose that the LX0-103 dumps command netstat -a hangs for a long time without producing output. An administrator might suspect:
A. A problem with NFS
B. A problem with DNS
C. A problem with NIS
D. A problem with routing
E. That the netstat daemon has crashed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements are true regarding the below syslog.conf configuration directive? (Select THREE) *.err;kern.notice;auth.notice /dev/console
A. Severity crit messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console
B. Severity notice messages from the auth facility will be directed to /dev/console
C. Severity notice messages from the kern facility will be directed to /dev/console
D. Severity err messages from the mail facility will be directed /dev/console
E. Severity notice messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 16
On a system running the K Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script automatically executed?
A. When KDM starts
B. When a user’s X session exists
C. When KDM crashes
D. When X is restarted
E. When X crashes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the LX0-103 BEST way to temporarily suspend a user’s ability to interactively login?
A. Changing the user’s UID.
B. Changing the user’s password.
C. Changing the user’s shell to /bin/false.
D. Removing the user’s entry in /etc/passwd.
E. Placing the command logout in the user’s profile.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
To test a shell script called myscript, the environment variable FOOBAR must be removed temporarily. How can this be done?
A. unset -v FOOBAR
B. set -a FOOBAR=””
C. env -u FOOBAR myscript
D. env -i FOOBAR myscript
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft certification exam material 70-494 exam dumps, latest and most accurate microsoft 70-494 dumps exam material and real exam practice questions and answers, easy to use Microsoft product. Our materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass

QUESTION 1
You need to implement client-side animations according to the 70-494 business requirements. Which line of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”).fadeIn(1000);
B. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”)-fadeOut(1000);
C. $(“body h2:nth-child(1)”).animate({ opacity: 0 });
D. $(“body h1:nth-child(1)”).animate({ opacity: 1 });
Correct Answer: BC Explanation

70-494

QUESTION 2
You are designing a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service that uses the Product class. You need to update the class to meet the storage requirement. What should 70-494 vce you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Mark the Product class with the DataContract attribute.
B. Mark the public members of the Product class with the DataContractFormat attribute.
C. Mark the Product class with the CollectionDataContract attribute.
D. Mark the public members of the Product class with the DataMember attribute.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

QUESTION 3
You need to add a method to the 70-494 ProductController class to meet the exception handling requirements for logging. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C Explanation

QUESTION 4
You need to modify the application to meet the productId requirement. What should you do?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation: The Contract.Requires(Of TException) method specifies a precondition contract for the enclosing method or property, and throws an exception if the condition for the 70-494 pdf contract fails. Syntax: ‘Declaration Public Shared Sub Requires(Of TException As Exception) ( _ condition As Boolean _ ) Type Parameters TException The exception to throw if the condition is false. Parameters condition Type: System.Boolean The conditional expression to test.

QUESTION 5
The GetDealPrice method must be called by using Ajax.
You need to get the 70-494 price of a product by using the GetDealPrice method of the ProductController.
Which code segment should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
You need to implement the requirements for handling IIS errors. What should you do?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B Explanation

QUESTION 7
When users attempt to retrieve a product from the product page, a run-time exception occurs if the product does not exist.
You need to route the 70-494 exception to the CustomException.aspx page.
Which method should you add to MvcApplication?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You need to implement the 70-494 exam business requirements for managing customer data.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a class named Customer-Controller to the Controllers folder. Then add a method named Edit to the class.
B. Create a new controller named Administration in the Controllers folder. Add an action named EditCustomer to the controller.
C. Add a folder named Customer to the Views folder. Then create a view inside this folder named Edit.aspx.
D. Create a new folder named EditCustomer to the Views folder. In the new folder, create a new file named Administration.aspx.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that 70-494 new customers enter a valid email address.
Which code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

QUESTION 10
An advertising campaign was recently launched. Some of the ads contain a link to products that no longer exist or have IDs that have changed. You need to ensure that 70-494 all product links display a product. Which code segment should you use to configure the route?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

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