[MAR 2021] CompTIA SY0-501 exam dumps and online practice questions are available from Lead4Pass

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The latest updated CompTIA SY0-501 Exam Practice Questions and Answers Online Practice Test is free to share from Lead4Pass (Q1-Q13)

QUESTION 1
Joe, a backup administrator, wants to implement a solution that will reduce the restoration time of physical servers.
Which of the following is the BEST method for Joe to use?
A. Differential
B. Incremental
C. Full
D. Snapshots
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
During a recent audit, it was discovered that many services and desktops were missing security patches. Which of the
following BEST describes the assessment that was performed to discover this issue?
A. Network mapping
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Port Scan
D. Protocol analysis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A security analyst is reviewing the following packet capture of an attack directed at a company\\’s server located in the
DMZ:

[2021.3] lead4pass sy0-501 practice test q3

Which of the following ACLs provides the BEST protection against the above attack and any further attacks from the same IP, while minimizing service interruption?
A. DENY TCO From ANY to 172.31.64.4
B. Deny UDP from 192.168.1.0/24 to 172.31.67.0/24
C. Deny IP from 192.168.1.10/32 to 0.0.0.0/0
D. Deny TCP from 192.168.1.10 to 172.31.67.4
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
A security administrator has replaced the firewall and notices a number of dropped connections. After looking at the
data the security administrator sees the following information that was flagged as a possible issue:
“SELECT * FROM” and `1\\’=\\’1\\’
Which of the following can the security administrator determine from this?
A. An SQL injection attack is being attempted
B. Legitimate connections are being dropped
C. A network scan is being done on the system
D. An XSS attack is being attempted
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
During an incident, a company\\’s CIRT determines it is necessary to observe the continued network-based transactions
between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following techniques would be
BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any
changes?
A. Physically move the PC to a separate Internet point of presence.
B. Create and apply microsegmentation rules.
C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment.
D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain.
Correct Answer: BA

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following access management concepts is MOST closely associated with the use of a password or PIN??
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Accounting
D. Identification
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
A company exchanges information with a business partner. An annual audit of the business partner is conducted
against the SLA in order to verify:
A. Performance and service delivery metrics
B. Backups are being performed and tested
C. Data ownership is being maintained and audited
D. Risk awareness is being adhered to and enforced
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following cryptography algorithms will produce a fixed-length, irreversible output?
A. AES
B. 3DES
C. RSA
D. MD5
Correct Answer: D
Exam B

 

QUESTION 9
To help prevent one job role from having sufficient access to create, modify, and approve payroll data, which of the
following practices should be employed?
A. Least privilege
B. Job rotation
C. Background checks
D. Separation of duties
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list below in the
correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

[2021.3] lead4pass sy0-501 practice test q10 [2021.3] lead4pass sy0-501 practice test q10-1

When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most volatile first.
Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a window of opportunity is
gone.
Naturally, in an investigation, you want to collect everything, but some data will exist longer than others, and you cannot
possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs,
and
printouts.
Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs, capture any
relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses and track total man-hours and
expenses associated with the investigation.

 

QUESTION 11
A manager makes an unannounced visit to the marketing department and performs a walk-through of the office. The
manager observes unclaimed documents on printers. A closer look at these documents reveals employee names,
addresses ages, birth dates, marital/dependent statuses, and favorite ice cream flavors. The manager brings this to the
attention of the marketing department head. The manager believes this information to be Pll, but the marketing head
does not agree. Having reached a stalemate, which of the following is the most appropriate action to take NEXT?
A. Elevate to the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) for redress, change from the top down usually succeeds.
B. Find the privacy officer in the organization and let the officer act as the arbiter.
C. Notify employees whose names are on these files that their personal information is being compromised.
D. To maintain a working relationship with marketing, quietly record the incident in the risk register.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Ann. An employee in the payroll department has contacted the help desk citing multiple issues with her device,
including Slow performance Word documents, PDFs, and images no longer opening A pop-up Ann states the issues
began after she opened an invoice that a vendor emailed to her. Upon opening the invoice, she had to click several
security warnings to view it in her word processor.
With which of the following is the device MOST likely infected?
A. Spyware
B. Crypto-malware
C. Rootkit
D. Backdoor
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to authenticate
devices using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?
A. A captive portal
B. PSK
C. 802.1X
D. WPS
Correct Answer: C


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[MAR 2021] CompTIA PK0-004 exam dumps and online practice questions are available from Lead4Pass

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QUESTION 1
A project manager is assigned a project that is part of the company\\’s strategic objectives. Of which of the following is
the project a part?
A. Project management office
B. Portfolio
C. Program
D. Mission statement
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A project manager needs status on the project timeline.
Which of the following team members should provide an update?
A. Product owner
B. Business analyst
C. Scheduler
D. Sponsor
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)
A. Ongoing
B. Temporary
C. Start and finish
D. Achieving a goal
E. Consisting of milestones
F. Restricting the budget
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 27

 

QUESTION 4
A company engaged a third-party audit firm to provide regular financial oversight for regulatory compliance and
requested a project manager to work with the firm. The PMO declines to assign a project manager and refers to another
department within the company. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this?
A. There are not enough project managers available for additional work
B. The work does not align with the strategic objectives of the organization
C. This is ongoing work the vendor has been hired to perform
D. The third party has a reputation for expertise in this area
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
New requirements were introduced during the execution phase of a project, and the team believes this will impact the
project cost but not the timely completion of project deliverables.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the PM to validate the assessment?
A. Ask the team for estimates, and review the project schedule and budget.
B. Ask the team to review the product scope and validate its impact on the schedule and quality.
C. Ask the team for estimates, and review the cost management plan.
D. Ask the team to perform a SWOT analysis, and validate the assessment.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A project team has failed to deliver on changes the project manager outlined on a call two weeks ago. The project team
members indicate they did not remember the contents on the call. Which of the following should the project manager do
FIRST to improve the level of awareness of changes to the project schedule?
A. Define the communications plan.
B. Record the missed tasks on the issue log.
C. Provide meeting minutes after each call.
D. Complete a fishbone diagram.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
A stakeholder informs a project manager that a weekly status report has not been delivered via email, but the monthly
status reports were received. Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Immediately send the current weekly status report
B. Add email to the distribution list for the weekly status report
C. Remove email from the distribution list for the monthly status report
D. Consult the communications plan and act accordingly
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
A project manager is overseeing a multinational project, and team leaders from numerous countries indicate the team
members have low morale.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the project manager would be unaware of the team member\\’s
decreased morale?
A. The project manager did not pay attention to visual cues.
B. The project manager did not perform active listening.
C. The project manager did not prioritize team member concerns.
D. The project manager did not visit the project\\’s international office locations.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A customer asks a project manager if a small change can be made during the delivery phase. The project manager
does not agree to the change.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
A. Established communication plan
B. Scope creep
C. Resource constraints
D. Iterative approach
Correct Answer: B
Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 133

 

QUESTION 10
A project manager is justifying a required change with the associated impact on the project.
Which of the following is the NEXT step?
A. Implementation
B. Approval
C. Validation
D. Auditing
Correct Answer: B
Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 294

 

QUESTION 11
A project can be defined as:
A. permanent and ongoing.
B. temporary and unique.
C. temporary and standard.
D. permanent and unique.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
The PMO is confused by an entry in the risk register and would like the project manager to provide clarification
regarding strategy. Based on the following entry:[2021.3] lead4pass pk0-004 practice test q12

Which of the following should be modified to BEST eliminate confusion?
A. Change the status to issue and include it in the issue log
B. Change the strategy to mitigate
C. Change the name to identify the problem clearly
D. Change the owner to sponsor
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Due to a lack of adherence to the risk response plan, there are numerous safety concerns within the scope of a building
project.
Which of the following MOST likely explains this issue?
A. Risks were not identified.
B. Risks were not mitigated.
C. Risks were not exploited.
D. Risks were not communicated.
Correct Answer: D


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[MAR 2021] CompTIA N10-007 exam dumps and online practice questions are available from Lead4Pass

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QUESTION 1
Lisa, a technician, has configured a new switch that is remotely accessed using SSH. The switch is working properly but
cannot be accessed remotely. Which of the following items is MOST likely missing in the configuration?
A. Port speed
B. Cryptokey
C. Data VLAN
D. NAT/PAT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network engineer is configuring wireless access for guests at an organization. Access to other areas in the
organization should not be accessible to guests. Which of the following represents the MOST secure method to
configure guest access to the wireless network?
A. Guests should log into a separate wireless network using a captive portal
B. Guests should log into the current wireless network using credentials obtained upon entering the facility
C. The existing wireless network should be configured to allow guest access
D. An additional wireless network should be configured to allow guest access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following network topologies typically has all devices on a network directly connected to every other
network device?
A. Mesh
B. Star
C. Ad hoc
D. Ring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following BEST describes how a layer 2 switch functions?
A. Switches packets within the same subnet based on MAC addresses
B. Switches packets between different subnets based on IP addresses
C. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
D. Switches packets between different subnets based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A network technician is trying to terminate CAT5 modular jacks. Which of the following tools would be MOST
appropriate for this scenario?
A. Crimper
B. OTDR
C. Throughput tester
D. Punch down tool
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Jeff, an administrator, has just finished installing a new switch and connected two servers with IPs of 192.168.105.20
and .30. The servers are able to communicate with each other, but are unable to reach the Internet. Jeff sees the
following information in the switch configuration: interface VLAN 105 IP address 192.168.105.5 255.255.255.0 Jeff is
able to ping the router at 192.168.105.1 from the switch.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The subnet mask is incorrect.
B. A routing loop has occurred.
C. Jeff used a crossover cable to connect the switch to the gateway.
D. The server is missing default-gateway information.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A supervisor requests that a technician downloads a MIB for a particular server. Which of the following protocols
requires MIBs?
A. IPSec
B. SSL
C. ISAKMP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A second router was installed on a network to be used as a backup for the primary router that works as a gateway. The
infrastructure team does not want to change the IP address of the gateway on the devices. Which of the following
network components should be used in this scenario?
A. Loopback IP
B. Virtual IP
C. Reserved IP
D. Public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Management has requested that a wireless solution be installed at a new office. Which of the following is the FIRST
thing the network technician should do?
A. Order equipment
B. Create network diagrams
C. Perform a site survey
D. Create an SSID.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following network topologies allows only communication to take place from one node at a time by passing
a token around the network?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Bus
D. Ring
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following ports would Zach, a technician, need to open on a firewall to allow SSH on the default port?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A technician needs to connect two routers using copper cables. Which of the following cables would utilize both the
TIA/EIA 568a and TIA/EIA 568b standards?
A. Cat5 crossover
B. Cat5e straight-through
C. Cat5e rollover
D. Cat6 console
E. Cat6a straight-through
Correct Answer: A


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[MAR 2021] CompTIA CV0-002 exam dumps and online practice questions are available from Lead4Pass

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QUESTION 1
A storage appliance has lost all network access. Which of the following network access methods could a storage
engineer use to investigate and correct the issue?
A. HTTP
B. Console port
C. RDP
D. SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A company is implementing a private cloud infrastructure and is testing its high availability components. In a planned
outage test, all systems will be shut down sequentially. Which of the following would be the LAST area to shut down?
A. Offsite mirror
B. Networking
C. Hypervisors
D. Storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A cloud administrator has finished building a virtual server template in a public cloud environment. The administrator is
now cloning six servers from that template. Each server is configured with one private IP address and one public IP
address. After starting the server instances, the cloud administrator notices that two of the servers do not have a public
IP address. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The maximum number of public IP addresses has already been reached.
B. The two servers are not attached to the correct public subnet.
C. There is no Internet gateway configured in the cloud environment.
D. The two servers do not have enough virtual network adapters attached.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following contributes to increased read access performance on a fibre channel SAN?
A. Zoning
B. Clustered storage
C. Caching
D. QoS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following
should the server administrator configure?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Trunk port
C. Virtual memory
D. VPN connection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
When a customer requests a VM to perform at higher levels the administrator should (Select two):
A. increase the VMs vRAM.
B. increase RAM on the host.
C. migrate the VM to a faster online host.
D. increase the VMs vCPU count.
E. increase disk space.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
A system has the ability to automatically provision additional virtual servers in response to a load increase. This is an
example of which of the following cloud features?
A. Replication
B. Resource Pooling
C. Orchestration
D. Virtual Network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A virtual machine snapshot is:
A. a backup copy of the virtual machine.
B. a revertible point in time of the virtual machine.
C. an exact copy of the virtual machine.
D. an image of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
After a recent outage going unnoticed, an administrator has been tasked to configure monitoring for the Linux-based
and Windows-based host operating systems in a hybrid cloud. Which of the following services should the administrator
confirm are functional prior to employing centralized monitoring to both types of operating systems? (Select two.)
A. Syslog services
B. Cron services
C. Web services
D. Task Manager services
E. WMI services
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
A cloud administrator is given a requirement to maintain a copy of all system logs for seven years. All servers are
deployed in a public cloud provider\\’s environment. Which of the following is the MOST cost-efficient solution for
retaining these logs?
A. Create a long-term storage repository at the cloud provider. Have all logs copied to the cloud storage device.
B. Schedule a nightly job on each server to archive all logs. Copy them to a compressed drive on the server.
C. Configure SMTP services on each server and schedule a nightly job to email the logs to the cloud administrator
team\\’s email account.
D. Configure a nightly job on each server to copy all logs to a single server. Schedule a job on the server to archive
those logs into a compressed drive.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following server types would be an ideal candidate for virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Hypervisor
B. Terminal server
C. Mail server
D. Enterprise database server
E. Domain controller
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator needs to test that a service is responding to external requests. Which of the following tools can be
used to accomplish this task?
A. ping
B. tracert/traceroute
C. telnet
D. ipconfig/ifconfig
Correct Answer: B


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[MAR 2021] CompTIA CS0-002 exam dumps and online practice questions are available from Lead4Pass

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QUESTION 1
An audit has revealed an organization is utilizing a large number of servers that are running unsupported operating
systems.
As part of the management response phase of the audit, which of the following would BEST demonstrate senior
management is appropriately aware of and addressing the issue?
A. Copies of prior audits that did not identify the servers as an issue
B. Project plans relating to the replacement of the servers that were approved by management
C. Minutes from meetings in which risk assessment activities addressing the servers were discussed
D. ACLs from perimeter firewalls showing blocked access to the servers
E. Copies of change orders relating to the vulnerable servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A security analyst is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number
of outbound requests over DNS Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this potential indicator of compromise\\’?
A. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
B. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic.
C. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
D. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state.
E. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An analyst has been asked to provide feedback regarding the controls required by a revised regulatory framework. At
this time, the analyst only needs to focus on the technical controls.
Which of the following should the analyst provide an assessment of?
A. Tokenization of sensitive data
B. Establishment of data classifications
C. Reporting on data retention and purging activities
D. Formal identification of data ownership
E. Execution of NDAs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A security analyst is reviewing the following log entries to identify anomalous activity:[2021.3] lead4pass cs0-002 practice test q4

Which of the following attack types is occurring?
A. Directory traversal
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Cross-site scripting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the
following output:[2021.3] lead4pass cs0-002 practice test q5

Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?
A. strace /proc/1301
B. rpm -V openash-server
C. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe
D. kill -9 1301
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A security analyst is investigating a system compromise. The analyst verifies the system was up to date on OS patches
at the time of the compromise. Which of the following describes the type of vulnerability that was MOST likely
exploited?
A. Insider threat
B. Buffer overflow
C. Advanced persistent threat
D. Zero-day
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An analyst is investigating an anomalous event reported by the SOC. After reviewing the system logs, the analyst
identifies an unexpected addition of a user with root-level privileges on the endpoint. Which of the following data sources
will BEST help the analyst to determine whether this event constitutes an incident?
A. Patching logs
B. Threat feed
C. Backup logs
D. Change requests
E. Data classification matrix
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
An analyst identifies multiple instances of node-to-node communication between several endpoints within the
10.200.2.0/24 network and a user machine at the IP address 10.200.2.5. This user machine at the IP address
10.200.2.5 is also identified as initiating outbound communication during atypical business hours with several IP
addresses that have recently appeared on threat feeds.
Which of the following can be inferred from this activity?
A. 10.200.2.0/24 is infected with ransomware.
B. 10.200.2.0/24 is not routable address space.
C. 10.200.2.5 is a rogue endpoint.
D. 10.200.2.5 is exfiltrating data.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following BEST describes the process by which code is developed, tested, and deployed in small
batches?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. SDLC
D. Dynamic code analysis
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cleverism.com/software-development-life-cycle-sdlc-methodologies/

QUESTION 10
A network attack that is exploiting a vulnerability in the SNMP is detected. Which of the following should the
cybersecurity analysts do FIRST?
A. Apply the required patches to remediate the vulnerability.
B. Escalate the incident to senior management for guidance.
C. Disable all privileged user accounts on the network.
D. Temporarily block the attacking IP address.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://beyondsecurity.com/scan-pentest-network-vulnerabilities-snmp-protocol-version-detection.html

QUESTION 11
As part of a merger with another organization, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is working with an assessor to
perform a risk assessment focused on data privacy compliance. The CISO is primarily concerned with the potential legal
liability and fines associated with data privacy. Based on the CISO\\’s concerns, the assessor will MOST likely focus on:
A. qualitative probabilities.
B. quantitative probabilities.
C. qualitative magnitude.
D. quantitative magnitude.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The security team at a large corporation is helping the payment-processing team to prepare for a regulatory compliance
audit and meet the following objectives:
1.
Reduce the number of potential findings by the auditors.
2.
Limit the scope of the audit to only devices used by the payment-processing team for activities directly impacted by the
regulations.
3.
Prevent the external-facing web infrastructure used by other teams from coming into the scope.
4.
Limit the amount of exposure the company will face if the systems used by the payment-processing team are
compromised.
Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the security team to meet these objectives?
A. Limit the permissions to prevent other employees from accessing data owned by the business unit.
B. Segment the servers and systems used by the business unit from the rest of the network.
C. Deploy patches to all servers and workstations across the entire organization.
D. Implement full-disk encryption on the laptops used by employees of the payment-processing team.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When attempting to do a stealth scan against a system that does not respond to ping, which of the following Nmap
commands BEST accomplishes that goal?
A. Nmap -SA -O -noping
B. Nmap -sT -O -P0
C. Nmap -sS -O -P0
D. Nmap -SQ -O -P0
Correct Answer: C


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QUESTION 1
A company is required to move its human resources application to the cloud to reduce capital expenses. The IT team
does a feasibility analysis and learns the application requires legacy infrastructure and cannot be moved to the cloud.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate cloud migration approach for the company?
A. Lift and shift
B. Hybrid
C. Rip and replace
D. In-place upgrade
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A cloud systems administrator needs to log in to a remote Linux server that is hosted in a public cloud. Which of the
following protocols will the administrator MOST likely use?
A. HTTPS
B. RDP
C. Secure Shell
D. Virtual network computing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A project manager must inform the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of the additional resources necessary to migrate
services to the cloud successfully.
Which of the following cloud assessments would be MOST appropriate to use for the recommendation?
A. Feasibility study
B. Gap analysis
C. Future requirements
D. Baseline report
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An organization wants to migrate a locally hosted application to a PaaS model. The application currently runs on a
15-year-old operating system and cannot be upgraded.
Which of the following should the organization perform to ensure the application will be supported in the cloud?
A. Risk register
B. Feasibility study
C. Benchmarks
D. Baseline
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company has been running tests on a newly developed algorithm to increase the responsiveness of the application.
The company\\’s monthly bills for the testing have been much higher than expected.
Which of the following documents should the company examine FIRST?
A. Memory report
B. Compute report
C. Network report
D. Storage report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following types of risk is MOST likely to be associated with moving all data to one cloud provider?
A. Vendor lock-in
B. Data portability
C. Network connectivity
D. Data sovereignty
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes
fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered?
A. Time to market
B. Operating expenditure fees
C. BYOL costs
D. Human capital
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company is moving to the cloud and wants to enhance the provisioning of computing, storage, security, and networking.
Which of the following will be leveraged?
A. Infrastructure as code
B. Infrastructure templates
C. Infrastructure orchestration
D. Infrastructure automation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud resources?
A. Security lists
B. Firewall
C. VPN
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an example of outsourcing administration in the context of the cloud?
A. Managed services
B. Audit by a third party
C. Community support
D. Premium support
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server
remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy is used?
A. Audit
B. Authorization
C. Hardening
D. Access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following can be used by a client\\’s finance department to identify the cost of cloud use in a public cloud
environment shared by different projects and departments?
A. Reserved instances
B. Service level agreement
C. Resource tagging
D. RFI from the CSP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A company with critical resources in the cloud needs to ensure data is available in multiple data centers around the
world.
Which of the following BEST meets the company\\’s needs?
A. Auto-scaling
B. Geo-redundancy
C. Disaster recovery
D. High availability
Correct Answer: B


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QUESTION 1
A company wants to extend its help desk availability beyond business hours. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
decides to augment the help desk with a third-party service that will answer calls and provide Tier 1 problem resolution,
such as password resets and remote assistance. The security administrator implements the following firewall change:
The administrator provides the appropriate path and credentials to the third-party company. Which of the following
technologies is MOST likely being used to provide access to the third company?[2021.3] lead4pass cas-003 practice test q1

A. LDAP
B. WAYF
C. OpenID
D. RADIUS
E. SAML
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A systems administrator establishes a CIFS share on a UNIX device to share data to Windows systems. The security
authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. Windows users are stating that they cannot
authenticate to the UNIX share. Which of the following settings on the UNIX server would correct this problem?
A. Refuse LM and only accept NTLMv2
B. Accept only LM
C. Refuse NTLMv2 and accept LM
D. Accept only NTLM
Correct Answer: A
In a Windows network, NT LAN Manager (NTLM) is a suite of Microsoft security protocols that provides authentication,
integrity, and confidentiality to users. NTLM is the successor to the authentication protocol in Microsoft LAN Manager
(LANMAN or LM), an older Microsoft product, and attempts to provide backward compatibility with LANMAN. NTLM
version 2 (NTLMv2), which was introduced in Windows NT
4.0 SP4 (and natively supported in Windows 2000), enhances NTLM security by hardening the protocol against many
spoofing attacks and adding the ability for a server to authenticate to the client.
This question states that the security authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. This will be
NTLMv2. Therefore, the answer to the question is to allow NTLMv2 which will enable the Windows users to connect to
the UNIX server. To improve security, we should disable the old and insecure LM protocol as it is not used by the
Windows computers.

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to enable policy-based flexible mandatory access controls on an open-source OS to prevent
abnormal application modifications or executions. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
A. Access control lists
B. SELinux
C. IPtables firewall
D. HIPS
Correct Answer: B
The most common open-source operating system is LINUX.
Security-Enhanced Linux (SELinux) was created by the United States National Security Agency (NSA) and is a Linux
kernel security module that provides a mechanism for supporting access control security policies, including United
States Department of Defense style mandatory access controls (MAC).
NSA Security-enhanced Linux is a set of patches to the Linux kernel and some utilities to incorporate a strong, flexible
mandatory access control (MAC) architecture into the major subsystems of the kernel. It provides an enhanced
mechanism to enforce the separation of information based on confidentiality and integrity requirements, which allows
threats of tampering and bypassing of application security mechanisms to be addressed and enables the confinement of
damage that can be caused by malicious or flawed applications.

QUESTION 4
A database administrator is required to adhere to and implement privacy principles when executing daily tasks. A
manager directs the administrator to reduce the number of unique instances of PII stored within an organization\\’s
systems to the greatest extent possible. Which of the following principles is being demonstrated?
A. Administrator accountability
B. PII security
C. Record transparency
D. Data minimization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing
on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the
code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client-side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D
Regular expression matching is a technique for reading and validating input, particularly in web software. This question
is asking about securing input fields where customers enter their credit card details. In this case, the expected input into
the credit card number field would be a sequence of numbers of a certain length. We can use regular expression
matching to verify that the input is indeed a sequence of numbers. Anything that is not a sequence of numbers could be
malicious code.

QUESTION 6
An internal application has been developed to increase the efficiency of an operational process of a global
manufacturer. New code was implemented to fix a security bug, but it has caused operations to halt. The executive
team has decided fixing the security bug is less important than continuing operations.
Which of the following would BEST support immediate rollback of the failed fix? (Choose two.)
A. Version control
B. Agile development
C. Waterfall development
D. Change management
E. Continuous integration
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
An insurance company has two million customers and is researching the top transactions on its customer portal. It
identifies that the top transaction is currently password reset. Due to users not remembering their secret questions, a
large number of calls are consequently routed to the contact center for manual password resets. The business wants to
develop a mobile application to improve customer engagement in the future, continue with a single factor of
authentication, minimize management overhead of the solution, remove passwords, and eliminate the contact center.
Which of the following techniques would BEST meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Magic link sent to an email address
B. Customer ID sent via push notification
C. SMS with OTP sent to a mobile number
D. Third-party social login
E. Certificate sent to be installed on a device
F. Hardware tokens sent to customers
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
A security analyst is inspecting the pseudocode of the following multithreaded application:
1. perform daily ETL of data
1.1 validate that yesterday\\’s data model file exists
1.2 validate that today\\’s data model file does not exist
1.2 extract yesterday\\’s data model
1.3 transform the format
1.4 load the transformed data into today\\’s data model file
1.5 exit
Which of the following security concerns is evident in the above pseudocode?
A. Time of check/time of use
B. Resource exhaustion
C. Improper storage of sensitive data
D. Privilege escalation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A senior network security engineer has been tasked to decrease the attack surface of the corporate network. Which of
the following actions would protect the external network interfaces from external attackers performing network
scanning?
A. Remove contact details from the domain name registrar to prevent social engineering attacks.
B. Test external interfaces to see how they function when they process fragmented IP packets.
C. Enable a honeynet to capture and facilitate future analysis of malicious attack vectors.
D. Filter all internal ICMP message traffic, forcing attackers to use full-blown TCP port scans against external network
interfaces.
Correct Answer: B
Fragmented IP packets are often used to evade firewalls or intrusion detection systems.
Port Scanning is one of the most popular reconnaissance techniques attackers use to discover services they can break
into. All machines connected to a Local Area Network (LAN) or Internet run many services that listen at well-known and
not-so-well-known ports. A port scan helps the attacker find which ports are available (i.e., what service might be listing
to a port).
One problem, from the perspective of the attacker attempting to scan a port, is that services listening on these ports log
scans. They see an incoming connection, but no data, so an error is logged. There exist a number of stealth scan
techniques to avoid this. One method is a fragmented port scan.
Fragmented packet Port Scan
The scanner splits the TCP header into several IP fragments. This bypasses some packet filter firewalls because they
cannot see a complete TCP header that can match their filter rules. Some packet filters and firewalls do queue all IP
fragments, but many networks cannot afford the performance loss caused by the queuing.

QUESTION 10
A pentester must attempt to crack passwords on a windows domain that enforces strong complex passwords. Which of
the following would crack the MOST passwords in the shortest time period?
A. Online password testing
B. Rainbow tables attack
C. Dictionary attack D. Brute force attack
Correct Answer: B
The passwords in a Windows (Active Directory) domain are encrypted.
When a password is “tried” against a system it is “hashed” using encryption so that the actual password is never sent in
clear text across the communications line. This prevents eavesdroppers from intercepting the password. The hash of a
password usually looks like a bunch of garbage and is typically a different length than the original password. Your
password might be “shitzu” but the hash of your password would look something like
“7378347eedbfdd761619451949225ec1”.
To verify a user, a system takes the hash value created by the password hashing function on the client computer and
compares it to the hash value stored in a table on the server. If the hashes match, then the user is authenticated and
granted access.
Password cracking programs work in a similar way to the login process. The cracking program starts by taking plaintext
passwords, running them through a hash algorithm, such as MD5, and then compares the hash output with the hashes
in the stolen password file. If it finds a match then the program has cracked the password.
Rainbow Tables are basically huge sets of precomputed tables filled with hash values that are pre-matched to possible
plaintext passwords. The Rainbow Tables essentially allow hackers to reverse the hashing function to determine what
the plaintext password might be.
The use of Rainbow Tables allow for passwords to be cracked in a very short amount of time compared with brute-force
methods, however, the trade-off is that it takes a lot of storage (sometimes Terabytes) to hold the Rainbow Tables
themselves.

QUESTION 11
The Chief Information Officer (CISO) is concerned that certain systems administrators will privileged access may be
reading other users\\’ emails. A review of a tool\\’s output shows the administrators have used webmail to log into other
users\\’ inboxes.
Which of the following tools would show this type of output?
A. Log analysis tool
B. Password cracker
C. Command-line tool
D. File integrity monitoring tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A software development manager is running a project using agile development methods. The company cybersecurity
engineer has noticed a high number of vulnerabilities have been making it into production code on the project.
Which of the following methods could be used in addition to an integrated development environment to reduce the
severity of the issue?
A. Conduct a penetration test on each function as it is developed
B. Develop a set of basic checks for common coding errors
C. Adopt a waterfall method of software development
D. Implement unit tests that incorporate static code analyzers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
The code in the question is SQL code. The attack is a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a code injection technique,
used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution
(e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an
application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters
embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly
known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.


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QUESTION 1
Joe. a technician, receives notification that a share for production data files on the network Is encrypted. Joe suspects a
cryptovirus Is active. He checks the rights of the network share to see which departments have access. He then
searches the user directories of those departmental users who are looking for encrypted files. He narrows his search to
a single user\\’s computer. Once the suspected source of the virus is discovered and removed from the network, which
of the following should Joe do NEXT?
A. Educate the end-user on safe browsing and email habits.
B. Scan and remove the malware from the infected system.
C. Create a system restore point and reboot the system.
D. Schedule antivirus scans and performs Windows updates.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A technician has just removed malware from a Windows 7 system, but the user reports that every time they type a URL
into Internet Explorer to navigate to a search engine the same standard page is being displayed on the browser. The
page is asking the user to purchase antivirus software.
Please resolve the problem using the available tools shown. When you have completed the simulation, please select the
done button to submit your answer.lead4pass 220-1002 practice test q2

A. Please review for the detailed answer.
Correct Answer: A
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lead4pass 220-1002 practice test q2-1 lead4pass 220-1002 practice test q2-2 lead4pass 220-1002 practice test q2-3

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is used for building entry and computer access?
A. Smart card
B. Personal identity verification card
C. Hardware tokens
D. Key fobs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies is used by malicious employees to obtain user passwords?
A. Main-in-the-middle
B. Phishing
C. Tailgating
D. Shoulder surfing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A user has been receiving reply emails from many contacts but the content of the emails is not familiar and the user did
not send the original messages. The user calls the help desk for assistance. Which of the following is the BEST way the
technician can fix this problem?
A. Perform an antivirus scan
B. Perform a refresh/restore
C. Perform an IDS upgrade
D. Perform a reinstall of the email client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A user wants to see the workstations present on the LAN in a workgroup environment. Which of the following settings
must be enabled to make this possible?
A. Turn off public folder sharing
B. Turn on network discovery
C. Use 128-bit encryption
D. Turn on file and folder sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A Linux user reports that an application will not open and gives the error. Only one instance of the application may run
at one time. A root administrator logs on to the device and opens a terminal. Which of the following pairs of tools will be
needed to ensure no other instances of the software are currently running?
A. pad and chmod
B. Sudo and vi
C. ls and chown
D. ps and kill
E. cp and rm
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company\\’s security team has noticed a lot of unusual network traffic coming from an internal IP address. The team
wants to obtain the name of the computer and then troubleshoot. Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish
this task?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. tracert
D. ping
Correct Answer: A
New Question, pending the Answer.

QUESTION 9
A technician is in the process of upgrading Windows 8 to Windows 10. The technician needs to make sure all of the
applications, user profiles, documents, and PST files are preserved. Which of the following methods would the technician MOST likely perform on the computer?
A. Unattended installation
B. Refresh upgrade
C. Clean installation
D. In-place upgrade
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following technologies can be used to secure mobile devices and their data? (Select TWO).
A. Protective screen
B. Remote wipe
C. Physical lock
D. Locator
E. Passcode lock
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
A company has just experienced a data breach that affected all mobile devices.
Which of the following would BEST secure access to user\\’s mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Full device encryption
B. Remote backup application
C. SSO authentication
D. Device profiles update
E. OS security updates
F. Biometric authentication
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 12
An office building lost power, and the generator started up. Users on several floors have reported their machines will not
start, even though the generator is running. A technician works to divert power from other floors until all users are able
to work. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the technician to recommend?
A. Add more redundancy to the power cabling
B. Purchase more battery backups for individual users
C. Implement desktop virtualization
D. Increase the capacity of the backup generator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A technician has been dispatched to resolve a malware problem on a user\\’s workstation. The antivirus program
discovered several hundred potential malware items on the workstation and removed them successfully. The technician
decides to schedule daily scans on the system, enables System Restore, and creates a restore point. Which of the
following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Run the scan again to ensure all malware has been removed
B. Quarantine the infected workstation from the network
C. Install all of the latest Windows Updates to patch the system
D. Educate the user on safe browsing practices
Correct Answer: C


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices is used to implement network security policies for an environment?
A. Firewall
B. managed switch
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a common use tor NAT?
A. Automatically assigning network addresses
B. Hiding the network portion of an IPv4 address
C. Connecting multiple devices through a single public IP address
D. Resolving alphanumeric names to addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A technician creates a VM in a public cloud to test a new application and then deletes the VM when finished. Which of
Does the following BEST describe this type of cloud environment?
A. Community
B. Elastic
C. Hybrid
D. On-demand
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician is building a CAD workstation for a user who will be saving files remotely.
Which of the following components are MOST important to include when configuring the system? (Choose two.)
A. Gigabit NIC
B. Graphics card
C. Liquid cooling unit
D. HDD size
E. RAM
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the main purpose of the +5VSB output of a power supply?
A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off
B. It provides power to the audio and soundboards of the machine
C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor
D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A developer downloaded and installed a new VM on a hypervisor to test a piece of software following the
release of an OS patch. After installing the VM. the developer is unable to download updates from the
vendor.
Which of the following should the developer check?
A. The hypervisor\\’s security configurations
B. The organization\\’s security policies
C. The guest OS network settings
D. The resource requirements
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A user\\’s smartphone has been slow recently. A technician sees the phone was purchased two months ago, and it is
top of the line. About a month ago, a new OS update was installed. To address the issue, the technician runs a
hardware diagnostic on the device and it reports no problems. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
performance issue on the device?
A. Too many applications are running updates
B. The device is currently running in airplane mode
C. The internal memory is failing on the device
D. The OS update is too resource-intensive for the device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, reports that his new smart wearable device is not synchronizing to his mobile device. Both devices are
powered on, but the mobile device fails to read the data from the wearable. Which of the following will MOST likely fix
this issue?
A. Pair the devices
B. Set the SSID
C. Update the smart wearable device firmware
D. Enable NFC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician is troubleshooting a network that is experiencing inconsistent connections through one of the network
drops in the board room. The technician wants to verify the integrity of the network run but needs to
identify which cable comes from the board room. However, none of the network connections in the network room are
labeled.
Which of the following are the BEST tools for the technician to use to identify the correct network run to troubleshoot?
(Choose two.)
A. Cable stripper
B. Cable tester
C. Tone generator
D. WiFi analyzer
E. Multimeter
F. Probe
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
An end-user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to
configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected?
A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port.
B. Use the Fn and function key combination
C. Adjust the monitor display settings.
D. Enable DisplayPort.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A technician wants the number of virtual machines hosting a web application in the public cloud environment to scale
based on real-time traffic on the website.
Which of the following should the technician configure?
A. Resource pooling
B. Rapid elasticity
C. Measured service
D. High availability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Ann, a customer, purchased a pedometer and created an account on the manufacturer\\’s website to keep track of her
progress. Which of the following technologies will Ann MOST likely use to connect the pedometer to her desktop lo
transfer her information to the website?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. NFC
D. Tethering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A laptop is connected to a conference room projector in extended display mode. The desktop icons appear normal on
the laptop but are disproportionate and illegible on the projector screen. Which of the following should the technician
check?
A. Video resolution
B. HDMI connection
C. Keystone
D. Focus
Correct Answer: A


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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+):https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

About the Exam

The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security. The CASP+ exam covers the following:

  • Enterprise security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques and requirements
  • More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyberdefense needs to meet business goals
  • Expanding security control topics to include mobile and small-form-factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
  • Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
  • Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as blockchain, cryptocurrency and mobile device encryption

Latest updates CompTIA CAS-003 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or
terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the
website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page
login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and
that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web
server log:
10.235.62.11 ?- [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET /site/script.php?user=admiand;pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200
5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented
by the developer?
A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and
the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the
browser side.
C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input
validation.
D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should
ensure strong passwords are enforced.
Correct Answer: C
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code `1=1\\’ will always provide a value of true.
This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.
In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It
is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements
are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must
exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for
string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly
executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL
database.

QUESTION 3
An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP
tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and
sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely
reason for the need to sanitize the client data?
A. Data aggregation
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data isolation
D. Data volume
E. Data analytics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing
sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically
destroyed.
Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?
A. Sovereignty
B. E-waste
C. Remanence
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-
related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be
used once or not at all.
Select and Place:lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5-1

Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.
With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot
control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.
Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data
would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.
No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.
Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified
as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant
risk.
Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to
certain windows.
The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application
windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.

QUESTION 6
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application.
The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application
designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance
overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select
TWO).
A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode
C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
D. Use AES with cipher text padding
E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
F. Use AES in Counter mode
Correct Answer: EF
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be
random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property
whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between
segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived
internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as
stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be
derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is
the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by
encrypting successive values of a “counter”. The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is
guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.

QUESTION 7
Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base. This purchase includes
several offices in different countries. To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee
activity may be monitored and reviewed. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this
practice?
A. The excessive time it will take to merge the company\\’s information systems.
B. Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements.
C. Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews.
D. The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user on a virtual machine downloads a large file using a popular peer-to-peer torrent program. The user is unable to
execute the program on their VM. A security administrator scans the VM and detects a virus in the program. The
administrator reviews the hypervisor logs and correlates several access attempts to the time of execution of the virus.
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior?
A. The hypervisor host does not have hardware acceleration enabled and does not allow DEP.
B. The virus scanner on the VM changes file extensions of all programs downloaded via P2P to prevent execution.
C. The virtual machine is configured to require administrator rights to execute all programs.
D. The virus is trying to access a virtual device which the hypervisor is configured to restrict.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
During an incident involving the company main database, a team of forensics experts is hired to respond to the breach.
The team is in charge of collecting forensics evidence from the company\\’s database server. Which of the following is
the correct order in which the forensics team should engage?
A. Notify senior management, secure the scene, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, implement chain
of custody, and analyze original media.
B. Take inventory, secure the scene, capture RAM, capture hard drive, implement chain of custody, document, and
analyze the data.
C. Implement chain of custody, take inventory, secure the scene, capture volatile and non-volatile storage, and
document the findings.
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D. Secure the scene, take inventory, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, document, and implement
chain of custody.
Correct Answer: D
The scene has to be secured first to prevent contamination. Once a forensic copy has been created, an analyst will
begin the process of moving from most volatile to least volatile information. The chain of custody helps to protect the
integrity and reliability of the evidence by keeping an evidence log that shows all access to evidence, from collection to
appearance in court.

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing company is having issues with unauthorized access and modification of the controls operating the
production equipment. A communication requirement is to allow the free flow of data between all network segments at
the site. Which of the following BEST remediates the issue?
A. Implement SCADA security measures.
B. Implement NIPS to prevent the unauthorized activity.
C. Implement an AAA solution.
D. Implement a firewall to restrict access to only a single management station.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security architect is seeking to outsource company server resources to a commercial cloud service provider. The
provider under consideration has a reputation for poorly controlling physical access to datacenters and has been the
victim of multiple social engineering attacks. The service provider regularly assigns VMs from multiple clients to the
same physical resources. When conducting the final risk assessment which of the following should the security architect
take into consideration?
A. The ability to implement user training programs for the purpose of educating internal staff about the dangers of social
engineering.
B. The cost of resources required to relocate services in the event of resource exhaustion on a particular VM.
C. The likelihood a malicious user will obtain proprietary information by gaining local access to the hypervisor platform.
D. Annual loss expectancy resulting from social engineering attacks against the cloud service provider affecting
corporate network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Company A is purchasing Company B, and will import all of Company B\\’s users into its authentication system.
Company A uses 802.1x with a RADIUS server, while Company B uses a captive SSL portal with an LDAP backend.
Which of the following is the BEST way to integrate these two networks?
A. Enable RADIUS and end point security on Company B\\’s network devices.
B. Enable LDAP authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
C. Enable LDAP/TLS authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
D. Enable 802.1x on Company B\\’s network devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on
their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\\’s guest WiFi network which is
isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be
accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the
doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to
prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
Correct Answer: AD
Privacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor\\’s personal device. This can then be
shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor\\’s personal device could have malware
on it.

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